a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this med
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.

2. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

3. The client is being taught about a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Canned vegetables. Canned vegetables are often high in sodium due to the preservation process, so they should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits (choice A), fresh chicken (choice C), and unsalted nuts (choice D) are all low-sodium options and can be included in a low-sodium diet. It is important to choose fresh or frozen vegetables over canned ones to reduce sodium intake. Fresh chicken and unsalted nuts are also good protein sources that are naturally low in sodium, making them suitable for a low-sodium diet. Therefore, clients following a low-sodium diet should prioritize fresh, whole foods over processed or canned options.

4. During a severe asthma exacerbation in a client, what is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a severe asthma exacerbation, the nurse's priority is to administer a rescue inhaler immediately. This action helps open the airways and improve breathing, which is crucial in managing the exacerbation. Choice B, preparing for intubation, would be considered if the client's condition deteriorates and they are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation even after using the rescue inhaler. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice C) may not be appropriate during a severe exacerbation as the client may struggle to breathe. While monitoring oxygen saturation levels (Choice D) is important, the immediate administration of a rescue inhaler takes precedence to address the acute breathing difficulty.

5. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height. The client is 26 weeks pregnant. What should the fundal height be?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Between 24 to 28 cm. Fundal height corresponds to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks of pregnancy, the fundal height should range between 24 to 28 cm. This measurement is a quick way to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height may vary and not always match the exact weeks of pregnancy. Choice C, measuring above the umbilicus by two finger widths, is not a standard method for fundal height measurement. Choice D, below the xiphoid process, is too high and not relevant for assessing fundal height during pregnancy.

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