Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours post-operative from abdominal surgery. The client is complaining of severe pain. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Reassess the pain and its characteristics
• B. Administer prescribed pain medication
• C. Notify the surgeon
• D. Encourage the use of relaxation techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a post-operative client complains of severe pain is to reassess the pain and its characteristics. Reassessment is crucial to understand the nature and intensity of the pain, which will guide the nurse in providing appropriate interventions. Administering pain medication may be necessary but should only be done after reassessment to ensure the right medication and dose are given. Notifying the surgeon may be required in certain situations, but reassessment of pain should precede this action. Encouraging relaxation techniques is not the priority when a client is experiencing severe pain post-operatively.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Ventrogluteal muscle
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred site for IM injections in adults due to its muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle, although commonly used for vaccines in adults due to easy accessibility, has a smaller muscle mass making it less ideal for IM injections. The vastus lateralis muscle is typically used in infants and young children, not in adults. The dorsogluteal site has a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and is no longer recommended for IM injections in any age group.

3. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

5. After delivering a healthy newborn, a client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. What initial intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Perform a uterine massage
• C. Monitor the newborn's vital signs
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for postpartum hemorrhage is to perform a uterine massage. This action helps the uterus contract, controlling bleeding. Administering IV fluids may be necessary but is not the initial intervention. Monitoring the newborn's vital signs is important but not the priority when managing postpartum hemorrhage. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate interventions to address the hemorrhage.

Similar Questions