HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate if shortness of breath occurs
- B. Use oxygen only when experiencing shortness of breath
- C. Do not adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider
- D. Use a humidifier with the oxygen to prevent dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client with COPD prescribed oxygen therapy is not to adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider. This is crucial because too much oxygen can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to further complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the oxygen flow rate without medical advice can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as oxygen therapy should be used as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to ensure the correct oxygen flow rate rather than using a humidifier.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF). Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?
- A. Restrict fluid intake
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet
- C. Encourage vigorous exercise
- D. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restrict fluid intake. Fluid restriction is crucial in the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps prevent fluid overload, which can exacerbate CHF symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Providing a high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and increase the workload of the heart. Encouraging vigorous exercise can strain the heart further in CHF patients. Administering bronchodilators is not the priority intervention for CHF.
3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Reduces gastric acid production
- C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
- D. Increases gastric mucus production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.
4. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with an IV infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Elevate the affected arm
- D. Discontinue the IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion. Pain and swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires immediate discontinuation of the infusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the infusion can lead to tissue damage or infection. Slowing the rate of infusion, applying a warm compress, or elevating the affected arm would not address the underlying issue of infiltration or phlebitis and could potentially worsen the condition by allowing more fluid to infiltrate the tissues.
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