Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine for pain management. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Check the client's respiratory rate
• B. Assess the client's pain level
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• D. Evaluate the client's level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can lead to respiratory depression, which makes it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's breathing closely. Assessing the respiratory rate helps in early detection of potential respiratory depression and allows prompt intervention. While assessing pain level (choice B) is important, monitoring the respiratory status takes precedence due to the risk of respiratory depression with morphine. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing respiratory status in a client receiving morphine. Evaluating the level of consciousness (choice D) is also important but does not directly address the immediate risk associated with morphine administration.

2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?

• A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
• B. To lower blood pressure.
• C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
• D. To increase appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Bilateral leg swelling.
• B. Sudden onset of chest pain.
• C. Gradual onset of dyspnea.
• D. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a 1.2mL injection to a 4-year-old. Which is the best site to administer an IM injection?

• A. Vastus Lateralis
• B. Radial artery
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Rectus femoris

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Vastus Lateralis. The vastus lateralis site is recommended for IM injections in small children due to its large muscle mass, making it suitable for injections in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The radial artery is not a site for IM injections; it is a site for arterial puncture. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential risks, such as injury to the sciatic nerve. The rectus femoris is not typically used for IM injections in children, as other sites like the vastus lateralis are more commonly preferred.

5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

• A. Decreased sexual libido
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Quickening
• D. Nocturia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

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