HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
- D. Take the medication in the morning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.
2. Which client will benefit most from the application of pneumatic compression devices to the lower extremities? The client who
- A. is immobile on prescribed bedrest.
- B. has pressure ulcers on several toes.
- C. has diminished pedal pulse volume.
- D. is confused and trying to climb out of bed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pneumatic compression devices are most beneficial for immobile clients on prescribed bedrest to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Applying these devices helps in promoting circulation and preventing blood clots. Choices B, C, and D do not specifically relate to the primary indication for pneumatic compression devices, making them incorrect. Pressure ulcers, diminished pedal pulse volume, and confusion with climbing out of bed may require different interventions or treatments.
3. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
4. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 300 mg/mL
- B. 350 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 400 mg/mL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.
5. The nurse is palpating the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen of a client. What organ lies underneath this area?
- A. Duodenum
- B. Gastric pylorus
- C. Liver
- D. Spleen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver. The liver is located in the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen. The duodenum (Choice A) is located in the right upper quadrant but not directly underneath the right upper hypochondriac region. The gastric pylorus (Choice B) is part of the stomach and is located more centrally in the abdomen. The spleen (Choice D) is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, not underneath the right upper hypochondriac region.
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