the nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease which lab value is most concerning
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Exam 1

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.

2. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client with a history of seizures being discharged home is to take their medication as prescribed. Consistent and timely intake of anti-seizure medication is vital in managing seizures and preventing episodes. While instructions like avoiding driving until the condition is stable, keeping a seizure diary, and avoiding alcohol consumption are important, none are as critical as ensuring proper medication adherence to control seizures effectively. Failure to take prescribed medications can lead to breakthrough seizures, compromising the patient's safety and seizure control.

3. Before administration of a stat dose of potassium chloride IV for a client with hypokalemia, what is the most important action for the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse before administering a stat dose of potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to ensure the IV is flowing freely. A freely flowing IV is essential to safely and effectively deliver potassium chloride, helping to prevent infusion-related issues. Checking the client's electrolyte levels or obtaining a baseline ECG may be important but are not the most critical actions before administering the medication. Mixing the medication thoroughly is not applicable in this scenario as potassium chloride is typically provided ready to use.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

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