HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?
- A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
- B. Presence of serous drainage
- C. Edema around the wound
- D. Absence of granulation tissue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.
2. A nurse is providing care to a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
- A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile water daily.
- B. Empty the catheter bag every 8 hours.
- C. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
- D. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Securing the catheter to the client's thigh is the correct action to prevent CAUTIs. By securing the catheter, movement is minimized, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract. Choice A is incorrect because routine irrigation of the catheter is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as emptying the catheter bag every 8 hours is important for proper drainage but does not directly prevent CAUTIs. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution does not address the main source of CAUTIs related to catheter care.
3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
- B. Measure the client's vital signs.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.
4. What action should a healthcare professional planning to insert an IV for an older adult client take?
- A. Place the client’s arm in a dependent position.
- B. Place the client’s arm in a flexed position.
- C. Elevate the client’s arm to the level of the heart.
- D. Use a tourniquet above the insertion site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a healthcare professional planning to insert an IV for an older adult client is to place the client’s arm in a dependent position. This positioning helps with vein prominence and facilitates easier IV insertion by enhancing blood flow and distending the veins. Placing the arm in a flexed position or elevating it to the level of the heart can impede vein visualization and make insertion more challenging. Using a tourniquet above the insertion site is a step in the IV insertion process but is not the initial action to take when preparing for the procedure.
5. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?
- A. 0.75 mL
- B. 1 mL
- C. 0.8 mL
- D. 1.2 mL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access