Nursing Elites

1. A 16-year-old gravida 1 para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She's not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?

• A. Allow liberal family visitation
• B. Keep an airway at the bedside
• C. Assess temperature every hour
• D. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping an airway at the bedside is crucial for a client with eclampsia, as there is a high risk of seizures that can obstruct the airway. Allowing liberal family visitation (choice A) may not be a priority at this time and can be overwhelming for the client. Assessing temperature every hour (choice C) is not directly related to managing eclampsia. Monitoring blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours (choice D) is important but not as immediate as ensuring airway patency.

2. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for four mothers. Which postpartum client is at highest risk for psychological difficulties during the postpartum period?

• A. A primiparous woman who has recently migrated to the US with her spouse
• B. A multiparous client who lives with her husband and his family members
• C. A multiparous female with a large family living in a community
• D. A primiparous adolescent living at home with her parents and significant other

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A primiparous woman who has recently migrated to the US with her spouse is at the highest risk for psychological difficulties during the postpartum period. Recent migration and adjustment to a new environment can increase the risk of postpartum depression, especially when combined with the challenges of being a new mother. Choice B, a multiparous client living with her husband and his family, may have social support from family members, which can be protective against psychological difficulties. Choice C, a multiparous female with a large family living in a community, also indicates potential social support. Choice D, a primiparous adolescent living at home with her parents and significant other, may have a support system in place with her family and significant other.

3. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells.
• B. Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.
• C. Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.
• D. Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 milliliters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.

4. What causes Down's syndrome?

• A. Alcohol abuse by the mother at the time of conception.
• B. Sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. An extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• D. Drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Down's syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. Choice A is incorrect as alcohol abuse is not the cause of Down's syndrome. Choice B is incorrect because Down's syndrome is not related to sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities. Choice D is also incorrect as drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy is not the cause of Down's syndrome.

5. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

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