Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true of mutations?

• A. Mutations can only occur by chance.
• B. Mutations produce sperm and ova cells.
• C. Mutations occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
• D. Mutations help adenine combine with guanine to form the single spiral structure of DNA.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mutations can occur due to environmental influences such as radiation, chemicals, or other external factors, leading to changes in the DNA sequence. Choice A is incorrect because mutations can also occur due to errors in DNA replication, not solely by chance. Choice B is incorrect as mutations affect the DNA sequence itself, not the production of specific cells. Choice D is incorrect because mutations involve changes in the DNA sequence and do not specifically involve the formation of the DNA structure.

2. A newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5 cm) and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33 cm). The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and it was a breech presentation delivered by cesarean section. What action should the nurse take based on this data?

• A. No action needs to be taken, it is normal for an infant born by cesarean section to have a small head circumference.
• B. Notify the pediatrician immediately. These signs support the possibility of hydrocephalus.
• C. Call these findings to the attention of the pediatrician. The head/chest ratio is abnormal.
• D. Record the findings on the chart. They are within normal limits.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Head and chest circumference measurements are within normal limits for a newborn, especially for those delivered by cesarean section, so no immediate action is required beyond documentation.

3. Tim, a 27-year-old man, has unusually narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and has no facial and body hair. His doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy to him. Tim is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Klinefelter syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tim's physical characteristics, such as narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and lack of facial and body hair, are typical signs of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY). This leads to underdeveloped testes and reduced testosterone production, resulting in features like gynecomastia, sparse facial and body hair, and reduced muscle mass. Testosterone replacement therapy is commonly used to address the hormonal imbalance in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the symptoms described in Tim's case. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic respiratory condition that does not present with the physical characteristics mentioned. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder primarily affecting motor function and cognition, not physical appearance and muscle mass.

4. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

5. When should the low-risk patient, who is 16 weeks pregnant, be advised to return to the prenatal clinic?

• A. 1 week.
• B. 2 weeks.
• C. 3 weeks.
• D. 4 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 weeks. Low-risk pregnant patients typically have prenatal visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks of gestation. This frequency allows for adequate monitoring of the pregnancy without being overly burdensome on the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the standard prenatal care schedule for low-risk pregnancies. Visits that are too frequent may cause unnecessary anxiety for the patient, while visits that are too infrequent may miss important opportunities for monitoring and intervention.

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