HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
- A. Uterine atony.
- B. Uterine inversion.
- C. Vaginal hematoma.
- D. Vaginal laceration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.
2. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?
- A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
- B. Exercises three times a week.
- C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
- D. Maternal age 30 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.
3. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?
- A. Biovular twins
- B. Fraternal twins
- C. Dizygotic (DZ) twins
- D. Monozygotic (MZ) twins
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.
4. A newborn is 1 hour old with a respiratory rate of 50/min, a heart rate of 130/min, and an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (97°F). Which of the following actions should be taken?
- A. Give the newborn a warm bath.
- B. Apply a cap to the newborn's head.
- C. Reposition the newborn.
- D. Obtain an oxygen saturation level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying a cap to the newborn's head is the correct action in this scenario. Newborns are at risk of heat loss due to their high surface area to volume ratio, and maintaining their body temperature is crucial to prevent hypothermia. Giving a warm bath can further increase heat loss and is not recommended. Repositioning the newborn may not address the primary concern of temperature regulation. While monitoring oxygen saturation is important, addressing thermal regulation takes precedence in this situation.
5. A client is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours. The available concentration is dexamethasone 10 mg/mL. How many mL of dexamethasone should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)
- A. 0.6 mL
- B. ---
- C. ---
- D. ---
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Calculation: (6 mg/dose) / (10 mg/mL) = 0.6 mL per dose. The correct answer is 0.6 mL. This calculation is obtained by dividing the dose needed (6 mg) by the concentration available (10 mg/mL). The resulting value is 0.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are not applicable as the correct answer has been calculated accurately.
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