a perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding what is
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

2. Before meiosis, a sperm cell:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.

3. Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.

4. Monozygotic (MZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monozygotic (MZ) twins share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two, resulting in identical genetic material for both twins. Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it implies a partial genetic similarity, which is not the case for MZ twins. Choice C (50%) is incorrect as it suggests half of the genes are shared, which is applicable to dizygotic (DZ) twins, not MZ. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it indicates minimal genetic sharing, which is not true for MZ twins.

5. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection that, in advanced stages, can attack major organ systems?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Syphilis is the correct answer. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. If left untreated, it can progress through various stages and potentially attack major organ systems, causing severe complications. Rubella, Cystic fibrosis, and Phenylketonuria are not sexually transmitted infections. Rubella is a viral infection, Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, and Phenylketonuria is a genetic metabolic disorder. These conditions do not typically affect major organ systems in the same way as untreated syphilis.

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