Nursing Elites

1. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.

2. Are babies with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) often larger than normal, and so are their brains?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Babies with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are typically smaller than normal, with smaller brains and developmental issues. Choice A is incorrect because babies with FAS are not larger than normal. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately reflect the typical characteristics of babies with FAS. Choice D is incorrect as babies with FAS are not always larger than normal.

3. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Urine Ketones
• B. Rapid plasma reagin
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Urine culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

5. How many pairs of autosomes does a human zygote contain?

• A. 46
• B. 44
• C. 23
• D. 22

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A human zygote contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 22. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of autosomes in a human zygote. Option A (46) represents the total number of chromosomes in a human zygote, not the number of autosomes. Option B (44) is incorrect as it does not account for the correct number of autosomes. Option C (23) is inaccurate since it represents the total number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the number of autosomes in a zygote.

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