Nursing Elites

1. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.

2. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

• A. Uterine atony.
• B. Uterine inversion.
• C. Vaginal hematoma.
• D. Vaginal laceration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

3. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
• B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
• C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
• D. Examine the client for pedal edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

4. A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Provide a calm environment
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels every hour
• C. Initiate seizure precautions
• D. Place the infant on their back with legs extended

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating seizure precautions is crucial when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome due to the increased risk of seizures. Providing a calm environment (Choice A) is important to reduce stimulation as these infants may be irritable. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is not typically a priority in neonatal abstinence syndrome unless specific signs or symptoms suggest the need for this assessment. Placing the infant on their back with legs extended (Choice D) does not directly address the potential complications associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome, such as seizures.

5. _____ is a type of estrogen, prescribed in the 1940s and 1950s to pregnant women, that is said to have caused testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer in some offspring.

• A. Androsterone
• B. Adiponectin
• C. Progestin
• D. Diethylstilbestrol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was prescribed to pregnant women in the 1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriages. However, it was later discovered that DES exposure in utero could lead to health issues in offspring, including an increased risk of testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer. Choice A, Androsterone, is a steroid hormone produced in small amounts in humans and unlikely to be associated with the adverse effects described. Choice B, Adiponectin, is a protein hormone that plays a role in regulating glucose levels and fatty acid breakdown, not related to the adverse effects mentioned. Choice C, Progestin, is a synthetic form of progesterone used in birth control and hormone therapy, not linked to the specific health concerns associated with DES exposure.

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