Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true of menstruation?

• A. During this time, the endometrium is shed.
• B. During this time, an unfertilized egg is discharged.
• C. During this time, a female can engage in sexual activity with her partner.
• D. During this time, a fertilized egg implants in the uterine lining.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding menstruation is that during this time, an unfertilized egg is discharged along with the shedding of the uterine lining. Choice A is incorrect because the endometrium is shed during menstruation. Choice C is incorrect as menstruation does not prevent a female from engaging in sexual activity with her partner. Choice D is incorrect as a fertilized egg does not undergo mitosis during menstruation but rather implants in the uterine lining for further development.

2. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to void.
• D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

3. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

• A. Uterine atony.
• B. Uterine inversion.
• C. Vaginal hematoma.
• D. Vaginal laceration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

4. Do dizygotic (DZ) twins run in families?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, dizygotic (DZ) twins can run in families. This is due to genetic factors that influence hyperovulation, where a woman releases multiple eggs during her menstrual cycle. This genetic predisposition can be passed down through generations, increasing the likelihood of having dizygotic twins. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the statement that dizygotic twins run in families is true, as supported by scientific evidence. It is important to note that while the genetic predisposition for dizygotic twins can run in families, it does not guarantee that every generation will have twins, as other factors also play a role in twin pregnancies.

5. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
• C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
• D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.

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