HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. What nursing action should the nurse implement for a 3-hour-old male infant who presents with cyanotic hands and feet, an axillary temperature of 96.5°F (35.8°C), a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of 165 beats per minute?
- A. Administer oxygen by mouth at 2L/min
- B. Gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source
- C. Notify the pediatrician of the infant's vital signs
- D. Perform a heel-stick to maintain blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing action is to gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source. The infant is presenting with signs of cold stress, indicated by cyanotic extremities and a low body temperature. Gradual warming is crucial to stabilize the infant's temperature and prevent further complications. Administering oxygen, notifying the pediatrician, or performing a heel-stick are not the priority actions in this scenario and may not address the immediate need to raise the infant's body temperature.
2. A woman who is 38 weeks gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Dizziness while standing
- B. Sinus tachycardia
- C. Lower back pain
- D. Absent patellar reflexes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absent patellar reflexes. Absent patellar reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. Dizziness while standing (choice A) is common in pregnancy but does not specifically indicate magnesium toxicity. Sinus tachycardia (choice B) can be a normal response to magnesium sulfate but does not indicate toxicity. Lower back pain (choice C) is common in pregnancy and not specifically associated with magnesium toxicity.
3. A client tells the nurse that she thinks she's pregnant. Which signs or symptoms provide the best indication that the client is pregnant?
- A. Morning sickness.
- B. Breast tenderness.
- C. Amenorrhea.
- D. Hegar's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hegar's sign, which is a softening of the lower uterine segment, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates changes in the cervix and uterus that occur during pregnancy. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is a common early sign of pregnancy but can also be due to other factors. Morning sickness, nausea and vomiting, can be a sign of early pregnancy but is not as specific as Hegar's sign. Breast tenderness is a common symptom in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes, but it is not as definitive as Hegar's sign in indicating pregnancy.
4. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?
- A. XX
- B. XYY
- C. XY
- D. XXY
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.
5. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:
- A. insomnia and nausea.
- B. infertility and impotence.
- C. Down syndrome.
- D. Turner syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.
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