a 3 hour old male infants hands and feet are cyanotic and he has an axillary temperature of 965f 358c a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute and
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HESI LPN

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. What nursing action should the nurse implement for a 3-hour-old male infant who presents with cyanotic hands and feet, an axillary temperature of 96.5°F (35.8°C), a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of 165 beats per minute?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action is to gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source. The infant is presenting with signs of cold stress, indicated by cyanotic extremities and a low body temperature. Gradual warming is crucial to stabilize the infant's temperature and prevent further complications. Administering oxygen, notifying the pediatrician, or performing a heel-stick are not the priority actions in this scenario and may not address the immediate need to raise the infant's body temperature.

2. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.

3. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.

4. As women reach the end of their childbearing years, does ovulation become more regular?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. As women age and reach the end of their childbearing years, ovulation becomes less regular due to hormonal changes associated with menopause. This can result in irregular ovulation patterns or even the cessation of ovulation entirely. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation does not become more regular with age. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the changes in ovulation patterns that occur as women approach the end of their childbearing years.

5. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.

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