HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. What nursing action should the nurse implement for a 3-hour-old male infant who presents with cyanotic hands and feet, an axillary temperature of 96.5°F (35.8°C), a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of 165 beats per minute?
- A. Administer oxygen by mouth at 2L/min
- B. Gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source
- C. Notify the pediatrician of the infant's vital signs
- D. Perform a heel-stick to maintain blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing action is to gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source. The infant is presenting with signs of cold stress, indicated by cyanotic extremities and a low body temperature. Gradual warming is crucial to stabilize the infant's temperature and prevent further complications. Administering oxygen, notifying the pediatrician, or performing a heel-stick are not the priority actions in this scenario and may not address the immediate need to raise the infant's body temperature.
2. A client at 37 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with contractions every two minutes. The nurse observes several shallow small vesicles on her pubis, labia, and perineum. The nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?
- A. Genital Warts
- B. Syphilis
- C. Herpes Simplex Virus
- D. German Measles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). HSV can present with small vesicles on the genital area, and it is a concern during labor due to the risk of transmission to the newborn. Genital warts (Choice A) are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically present as flesh-colored growths, not vesicles. Syphilis (Choice B) manifests as painless sores and can have systemic effects but does not typically present with vesicles. German measles (Choice D), also known as Rubella, is a viral illness characterized by a red rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, not vesicles.
3. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?
- A. A client who has active genital herpes
- B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
- C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
- D. A client who has placenta previa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.
4. At 12 hours after the birth of a healthy infant, the mother complains of feeling constant vaginal pressure. The nurse determines the fundus is firm and at midline with moderate rubra lochia. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the suprapubic area for distention
- B. Inform the client to take a warm sitz bath
- C. Inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas
- D. Apply a fresh pad and check in 1 hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the mother's complaint of constant vaginal pressure along with a firm fundus and moderate rubra lochia indicates a potential perineal injury or hematoma. The correct action for the nurse to take is to inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas to assess for any signs of trauma or hematoma. Checking the suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) is not the priority here since the symptoms suggest a perineal issue. Advising a warm sitz bath (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen any existing trauma. Applying a fresh pad and checking in 1 hour (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate assessment of the perineal and rectal areas in response to the reported symptoms.
5. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?
- A. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a woman’s first pregnancy.
- B. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a woman infertile for the rest of her life.
- C. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome.
- D. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.
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