a 3 hour old male infants hands and feet are cyanotic and he has an axillary temperature of 965f 358c a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute and
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HESI LPN

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. What nursing action should the nurse implement for a 3-hour-old male infant who presents with cyanotic hands and feet, an axillary temperature of 96.5°F (35.8°C), a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of 165 beats per minute?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action is to gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source. The infant is presenting with signs of cold stress, indicated by cyanotic extremities and a low body temperature. Gradual warming is crucial to stabilize the infant's temperature and prevent further complications. Administering oxygen, notifying the pediatrician, or performing a heel-stick are not the priority actions in this scenario and may not address the immediate need to raise the infant's body temperature.

2. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

3. What is the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: double helix. DNA is structured as a double helix, resembling a twisted ladder made up of two strands of nucleotides. Choice A, single spiral, is incorrect as DNA is not a single spiral structure. Choice C, sphere, is incorrect as DNA does not form a spherical shape. Choice D, cube, is incorrect as DNA does not have a cubic structure. Understanding the double helix structure of DNA is essential as it allows for the storage and transmission of genetic information in living organisms.

4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

5. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

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