HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
- B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
- C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
- D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.
2. A client who delivered a healthy newborn an hour ago asked the nurse when she can go home. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. After the baby no longer demonstrates acrocyanosis
- B. After the baby receives the vitamin K injection
- C. When ambulating to avoid causing dizziness
- D. When there is no significant vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide the client is ensuring that there is no significant vaginal bleeding before discharge. This is vital to prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Options A, B, and C are important aspects of postpartum care, but assessing and managing vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to its potential seriousness.
3. A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?
- A. Membranes are intact.
- B. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities.
- C. Contractions decrease with walking.
- D. Cervical dilation is 1 centimeter.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contractions that decrease with walking are typically indicative of false labor, as true labor contractions tend to intensify with activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A) Intact membranes are a normal finding and do not confirm the absence of labor. B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities is a sign of fluid retention and not directly related to labor status. D) Cervical dilation of 1 centimeter indicates some cervical changes, but it alone does not confirm active labor.
4. A mother spontaneously delivers a newborn infant in the taxicab while on the way to the hospital. The emergency room nurse reported the mother has active herpes (HSV II) lesions on the vulva. Which intervention should the nurse implement first when admitting the neonate to the nursery?
- A. Document the newborn's temperature on the flow sheet.
- B. Place the newborn in the isolation area of the nursery.
- C. Obtain a blood specimen for a serum glucose level.
- D. Administer the vitamin K injection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Newborns exposed to active herpes lesions are at high risk for neonatal herpes, which can be severe. Placing the newborn in isolation is crucial as it helps prevent the spread of the virus and allows for close monitoring. Documenting the newborn's temperature, obtaining a blood specimen for a serum glucose level, and administering the vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not the priority when dealing with a potential infectious risk like neonatal herpes.
5. Tim, a 27-year-old man, has unusually narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and has no facial and body hair. His doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy to him. Tim is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Klinefelter syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tim's physical characteristics, such as narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and lack of facial and body hair, are typical signs of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY). This leads to underdeveloped testes and reduced testosterone production, resulting in features like gynecomastia, sparse facial and body hair, and reduced muscle mass. Testosterone replacement therapy is commonly used to address the hormonal imbalance in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the symptoms described in Tim's case. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic respiratory condition that does not present with the physical characteristics mentioned. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder primarily affecting motor function and cognition, not physical appearance and muscle mass.
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