HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
- B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
- C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
- D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.
2. Is a low sperm count or lack of sperm the most common infertility problem in men?
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Rarely
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low sperm count or lack of sperm is indeed one of the most common causes of infertility in men. Factors such as hormonal imbalances, genetic issues, reproductive anatomy problems, and lifestyle factors can also contribute to male infertility. Choice B is incorrect because a low sperm count is a prevalent issue among men facing infertility, making it a common problem. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the prevalence of low sperm count as a cause of infertility in men.
3. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?
- A. To induce abortion
- B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
- C. To determine the baby's gender
- D. To monitor fetal growth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?
- A. Molding
- B. Vernix Caseosa
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Sternal retractions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.
5. How many pairs of autosomes does a human zygote contain?
- A. 46
- B. 44
- C. 23
- D. 22
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A human zygote contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 22. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of autosomes in a human zygote. Option A (46) represents the total number of chromosomes in a human zygote, not the number of autosomes. Option B (44) is incorrect as it does not account for the correct number of autosomes. Option C (23) is inaccurate since it represents the total number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the number of autosomes in a zygote.
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