Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
• B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
• C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
• D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

2. Following an amniocentesis, a nurse is caring for a client. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hyperemesis
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Hypoxia
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the nurse should monitor the client for potential complications, with hemorrhage being a significant concern due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Hyperemesis (severe vomiting), proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), and hypoxia (low oxygen levels) are not typically associated with amniocentesis and are less likely to occur compared to hemorrhage, which is a more common complication that requires prompt recognition and intervention.

3. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to void.
• D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

4. In the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which of the following bases combines with thymine?

• A. Cytosine
• B. Adenine
• C. Rhodamine
• D. Serine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adenine. In the structure of DNA, adenine pairs with thymine through hydrogen bonding, forming one of the complementary base pairs that make up the double helix structure of DNA. Cytosine pairs with guanine, not thymine. Rhodamine and serine are not DNA bases and do not participate in DNA base pairing. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

5. A pregnant client mentions in her history that she changes the cat's litter box daily. Which test should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Biophysical profile
• B. Fern test
• C. Amniocentesis
• D. TORCH screening

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, TORCH screening. TORCH screening is done to detect infections such as toxoplasmosis, which can be contracted from handling cat litter and is harmful during pregnancy. Biophysical profile (choice A) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation. Fern test (choice B) is used to assess for amniotic fluid leakage. Amniocentesis (choice C) involves taking a sample of amniotic fluid to test for genetic abnormalities and certain infections, not specifically related to toxoplasmosis from cat litter.

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