HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
- B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
- C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
- D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.
2. Is a low sperm count or lack of sperm the most common infertility problem in men?
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Rarely
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low sperm count or lack of sperm is indeed one of the most common causes of infertility in men. Factors such as hormonal imbalances, genetic issues, reproductive anatomy problems, and lifestyle factors can also contribute to male infertility. Choice B is incorrect because a low sperm count is a prevalent issue among men facing infertility, making it a common problem. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the prevalence of low sperm count as a cause of infertility in men.
3. Monozygotic (MZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.
- A. 100
- B. 75
- C. 50
- D. 25
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monozygotic (MZ) twins share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two, resulting in identical genetic material for both twins. Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it implies a partial genetic similarity, which is not the case for MZ twins. Choice C (50%) is incorrect as it suggests half of the genes are shared, which is applicable to dizygotic (DZ) twins, not MZ. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it indicates minimal genetic sharing, which is not true for MZ twins.
4. A client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes.
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position.
- C. Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.
- D. Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes. This approach allows for the careful monitoring and adjustment of oxytocin administration during labor induction. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position can decrease blood flow to the placenta and compromise fetal oxygenation. Choice C is incorrect as titrating the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min is not a standard practice for oxytocin administration. Choice D is incorrect as limiting IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours is not specifically related to the administration of oxytocin for labor induction.
5. The nurse is caring for a multiparous client who is 8 centimeters dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. The client is shivering and states extreme discomfort with the urge to bear down. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer IV pain medication
- B. Perform a vaginal exam
- C. Reposition to side-lying
- D. Encourage pushing with each contraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning the client to a side-lying position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This position can help relieve pressure on the cervix and reduce the urge to push prematurely, allowing the cervix to continue dilating. Administering IV pain medication may not address the underlying cause of the discomfort, and pushing prematurely can lead to cervical trauma. Performing a vaginal exam is not necessary at this point as the client is already 8 centimeters dilated, and the fetal head is at 0 station.
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