Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
• B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
• C. How can I help answer your questions?
• D. What concerns do you have at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.

2. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

• A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
• B. Assess intake and output.
• C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
• D. Limit visitors to family members only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who received the first-time electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a half hour ago. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Offer oral fluids.
• B. Monitor vital signs.
• C. Evaluate ECT effectiveness.
• D. Encourage group participation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a client receives electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the nurse's priority should be to monitor vital signs. This is important to ensure the client's physical stability and detect any immediate complications post-procedure. Offering oral fluids, evaluating ECT effectiveness, and encouraging group participation are all important aspects of care but monitoring vital signs takes precedence in the immediate post-ECT period.

4. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

5. A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Projection
• C. Rationalization
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. In this situation, the client's calm and quiet demeanor after a traumatic event like sexual assault may indicate denial, a defense mechanism where the individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of the distressing event. Choice B, Projection, involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasoning is used to justify behaviors or feelings. Choice D, Intellectualization, is a defense mechanism where excessive reasoning or logic is used to avoid uncomfortable emotions.

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