Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
• B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.

2. Physical examination of a 6-year-old reveals several bite marks in various locations on his body. X-ray examination reveals healed fractures of the ribs. The mother tells the nurse that her child is always having accidents. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. I need to inform the healthcare provider about your child's tendency to be accident-prone.
• B. Tell me more specifically about your child's accidents.
• C. I must report these injuries to the authorities because they do not seem accidental.
• D. Boys this age always seem to require more supervision and can be quite accident-prone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: (B) seeks more information in a non-threatening manner to gather additional details about the child's accidents. This response allows the nurse to explore the situation further without making assumptions. (A) fails to address the concerning findings and instead focuses on informing the healthcare provider. (C) jumps to conclusions without gathering more information, potentially causing unnecessary distress to the family. (D) dismisses the seriousness of the situation by attributing the injuries to common accidents for boys, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the issue.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client to describe the voices and what they are saying.
• B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in reality-based activities.
• D. Ask the client to focus on positive thoughts instead of the voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage them to engage in reality-based activities. This intervention helps manage auditory hallucinations by redirecting the client's focus away from the hallucinations. Choice A is not recommended as it may exacerbate the hallucinations or distress the client. Choice B is incorrect because denying the reality of the voices can invalidate the client's experiences. Choice D, asking the client to focus on positive thoughts, may not be effective in addressing the auditory hallucinations directly.

4. The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?

• A. Benzodiazepines
• B. Marijuana
• C. Methamphetamine
• D. Alcohol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.

5. A client who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is exhibiting manipulative behavior. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Set clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior.
• B. Ignore the manipulative behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• C. Remind the client that manipulative behavior is unacceptable.
• D. Explain the consequences of manipulative behavior to the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior is the most important intervention for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. This approach helps establish boundaries, maintain a therapeutic environment, and provide structure for the client. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring manipulative behavior can lead to its reinforcement. Choice C, while important, may not be as effective as directly setting limits. Choice D focuses on consequences rather than immediate intervention, making it less effective than setting clear limits.

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