HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit tells the nurse, 'My problems are so bad that no one can help me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. How can I help?
- B. Things probably aren't as bad as they seem right now.
- C. Let's talk about what is right with your life.
- D. I hear how miserable you are, but things will get better soon.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering self shows empathy and caring (A) and is the best choice provided. (B) dismisses the client's feelings and reality. (C) avoids addressing the client's concerns directly and may come across as invalidating. Although (D) starts with acknowledging the client's feelings, the second part about things getting better soon can be perceived as offering false reassurance, which is not recommended in therapeutic communication.
2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage the client to focus on reality-based activities.
- B. Ask the client to describe the voices he hears.
- C. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
- D. Encourage the client to interact with others who are not experiencing hallucinations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client to describe the voices he hears is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. It helps the nurse assess the content and severity of the hallucinations, enabling the planning of appropriate interventions. Choice A is not as effective as directly addressing the hallucinations. Choice C may lead to mistrust as the client believes the voices are real. Choice D does not address the client's immediate need related to the hallucinations.
3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer prescribed medication to manage symptoms.
- B. Provide a calm environment with minimal stimulation.
- C. Encourage the client to express feelings and emotions.
- D. Reinforce the need for consistent medication adherence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.
4. During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
- A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
- B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
- C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
- D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It's crucial to determine if the teenager might have taken other substances besides the pain pills mentioned by the mother. This information is vital for effective treatment because knowing the full scope of substances involved helps in managing potential interactions, side effects, and the overall condition of the patient. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment compared to knowing if the teenager has ingested any other drugs.
5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.
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