Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit tells the nurse, 'My problems are so bad that no one can help me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. How can I help?
• B. Things probably aren't as bad as they seem right now.
• C. Let's talk about what is right with your life.
• D. I hear how miserable you are, but things will get better soon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering self shows empathy and caring (A) and is the best choice provided. (B) dismisses the client's feelings and reality. (C) avoids addressing the client's concerns directly and may come across as invalidating. Although (D) starts with acknowledging the client's feelings, the second part about things getting better soon can be perceived as offering false reassurance, which is not recommended in therapeutic communication.

2. An older female adult who lives in a nursing home is loudly demanding that the nurse call her son who has been deceased for five years. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assist the client in making the phone call.
• B. Remind the client about her son's passing.
• C. Escort the client to a private area.
• D. Direct the client to a new activity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate intervention is to direct the client to a new activity. This approach can help redirect the client's attention, distract her from the distressing request, and engage her in a more positive interaction. Choice A could exacerbate the client's distress by attempting to make the impossible call, and reminding the client about her son's passing (Choice B) may increase her emotional distress. Escorting the client to a private area (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue and may not effectively manage the situation.

3. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to breathe slowly and deeply.
• B. Ask the client to describe the sensations they are experiencing.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on a calming image.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

4. An adult female client tells the nurse that though she is afraid her abusive boyfriend might one day kill her, she keeps hoping that he will change. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discuss treatment options for abusive partners.
• B. Explore the client's readiness to discuss the situation.
• C. Determine the frequency and type of client's abuse.
• D. Report the finding to the police department.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exploring the client's readiness to discuss the situation is the correct first step. It allows the nurse to assess the client's emotional state, willingness to seek help, and readiness to address the abusive relationship. This approach helps build trust and rapport with the client, paving the way for further interventions. Discussing treatment options for abusive partners (Choice A) may be premature and not well-received if the client is not ready to address the situation. Determining the frequency and type of abuse (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the client's readiness to talk. Reporting the finding to the police (Choice D) should be done if there is an immediate threat to the client's safety, but exploring the client's readiness to discuss the situation should be the initial step to provide support and intervention.

5. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

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