Nursing Elites

1. Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.
• B. Assist the client in identifying stimuli that precipitate the ritualistic activity.
• C. Allow time for the ritualistic behavior, then redirect the client to other activities.
• D. Teach the client relaxation and thought-stopping techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.

2. Which client outcome indicates improvement for a client who is admitted with auditory hallucinations?

• A. Argues with the voices.
• B. Tells when voices decrease.
• C. Follows what the voices say.
• D. Tells the nurse what the voices say.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tells when voices decrease.' This outcome indicates improvement because it shows that the client is experiencing a reduction in auditory hallucinations. By communicating that the voices are decreasing, it suggests that the client's symptoms are improving and the treatment is effective. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Arguing with the voices (A) indicates ongoing engagement with the hallucinations, which is not a positive outcome. Following what the voices say (C) suggests compliance with the hallucinations, which is not indicative of improvement. Lastly, telling the nurse what the voices say (D) does not necessarily demonstrate a reduction in hallucinations or improvement in the client's condition.

3. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.

4. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Schedule specific times for handwashing.
• C. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
• D. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who excessively washes hands. This approach can help the client understand the underlying reasons for the behavior, address the associated anxiety, and work toward behavior modification. Choices A, allowing the behavior to continue, and D, restricting access to soap and water, do not address the root cause of the behavior and may exacerbate anxiety. Choice B, scheduling specific times for handwashing, does not address the underlying emotional factors contributing to the behavior and may not effectively reduce the client's anxiety.

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