Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?

• A. European American
• B. Native American
• C. African American
• D. Asian American

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.

2. Following a traumatic delivery, an infant receives an initial Apgar score of 3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Page the pediatrician STAT
• B. Continue resuscitative efforts
• C. Repeat the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes
• D. Inform the parents of the infant's condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where an infant receives a low Apgar score of 3 following a traumatic delivery, the most crucial intervention for the nurse to implement is to continue resuscitative efforts. A low Apgar score indicates that the newborn is in distress and requires immediate medical attention to support breathing, heart rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Continuing resuscitative efforts is essential to provide life-saving interventions promptly. Paging the pediatrician may cause a delay in crucial interventions, repeating the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes is not appropriate as immediate action is needed to stabilize the infant, and informing parents should not take precedence over providing immediate medical care to the newborn.

3. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

• A. A chromosomal abnormality.
• B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
• C. A recessive gene.
• D. A decrease in estrogen levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

4. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

• A. Uterine atony.
• B. Uterine inversion.
• C. Vaginal hematoma.
• D. Vaginal laceration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

5. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?

• A. XX
• B. XYY
• C. XY
• D. XXY

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.

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