which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia
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HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.

2. A new mother who is a lacto-ovo vegetarian plans to breastfeed her infant. Which information should the nurse provide prior to discharge?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Continue prenatal vitamins with B12 while breastfeeding.' Vitamin B12 is crucial for lacto-ovo vegetarian mothers to prevent deficiencies in both the mother and the infant. Choice B is incorrect as Lanolin-based nipple cream is safe for use during breastfeeding. Choice C is not necessary unless there are specific indications for iron supplementation. Choice D, weighing the baby weekly, is important for monitoring growth but not specifically related to the mother's diet.

3. Which drug was marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women and caused birth defects such as missing or stunted limbs in infants?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thalidomide is the correct answer. Thalidomide was a drug marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women as a sedative and anti-nausea medication but tragically led to severe birth defects, including limb deformities, when taken during pregnancy. Progestin (Choice A) and Estrogen (Choice B) are hormones that are not associated with causing birth defects like Thalidomide. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone that plays a role in labor and breastfeeding and is not known to cause birth defects like Thalidomide.

4. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

5. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.

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