Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

2. Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?

• A. Presence of a neural tube defect.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Gender of the fetus.
• D. Fetal lung maturity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.

3. The nurse places one hand above the symphysis while massaging the fundus of a multiparous client whose uterine tone is boggy 15 minutes after delivering a 7-pound, 10-ounce (3220-gram) infant. Which information should the nurse provide to the client about these findings?

• A. The uterus should be firm to prevent an intrauterine infection.
• B. Both the lower uterine segment and the fundus must be massaged.
• C. A firm uterus prevents the endometrial lining from being sloughed.
• D. Clots may form inside a boggy uterus and need to be expelled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After childbirth, a boggy uterus indicates poor uterine tone, which can lead to the formation of clots. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and expel clots, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the main concern with a boggy uterus is the risk of clot formation and postpartum hemorrhage, not solely preventing intrauterine infection, massaging the lower uterine segment, or preventing the endometrial lining from sloughing.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

• A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
• B. Left Upper Abdomen
• C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
• D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process

Correct answer: A

Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.

5. In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?

• A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
• B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
• C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
• D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.

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