when assessing a woman in the first stage of labor which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective
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1. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

2. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

3. Which of the following statements is true of mutations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mutations can occur due to environmental influences such as radiation, chemicals, or other external factors, leading to changes in the DNA sequence. Choice A is incorrect because mutations can also occur due to errors in DNA replication, not solely by chance. Choice B is incorrect as mutations affect the DNA sequence itself, not the production of specific cells. Choice D is incorrect because mutations involve changes in the DNA sequence and do not specifically involve the formation of the DNA structure.

4. Before meiosis, a sperm cell:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.

5. Do dizygotic (DZ) twins run in families?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, dizygotic (DZ) twins can run in families. This is due to genetic factors that influence hyperovulation, where a woman releases multiple eggs during her menstrual cycle. This genetic predisposition can be passed down through generations, increasing the likelihood of having dizygotic twins. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the statement that dizygotic twins run in families is true, as supported by scientific evidence. It is important to note that while the genetic predisposition for dizygotic twins can run in families, it does not guarantee that every generation will have twins, as other factors also play a role in twin pregnancies.

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