Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

2. What is the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy?

• A. Assessing FHR and maternal vital signs.
• B. Performing a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
• C. Placing clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
• D. Monitoring uterine contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. This assessment is crucial in determining the extent of blood loss and its impact on both the mother and the fetus. Ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus is the top priority in this situation. While obtaining hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important, it can be done after the initial assessment. Placing clean disposable pads is necessary for managing any drainage but does not take precedence over assessing vital signs. Monitoring uterine contractions is important but is not the highest priority when compared to assessing the FHR and maternal vital signs.

3. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?

• A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
• B. Exercises three times a week.
• C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
• D. Maternal age 30 years.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.

4. A newborn is being assessed following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Polycythemia
• C. Facial Palsy
• D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Facial palsy is a known complication of forceps-assisted birth. During forceps delivery, pressure applied to the facial nerve can result in facial palsy. The newborn may present with weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. Polycythemia (Choice B) is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells and is not typically associated with forceps delivery. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (Choice D) is a lung condition that primarily affects premature infants who require mechanical ventilation and prolonged oxygen therapy, not a direct outcome of forceps-assisted birth.

5. What is the central layer of the embryo from which the bones and muscles develop?

• A. neural tube
• B. mesoderm
• C. ectoderm
• D. umbilical cord

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is mesoderm. The mesoderm is the middle layer of the embryo that gives rise to the bones, muscles, and other connective tissues. The neural tube (choice A) develops into the nervous system, not bones and muscles. The ectoderm (choice C) forms the skin and nervous system, not bones and muscles. The umbilical cord (choice D) is a structure that connects the developing fetus to the placenta; it is not a layer of the embryo that gives rise to bones and muscles.

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