HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for four mothers. Which postpartum client is at highest risk for psychological difficulties during the postpartum period?
- A. A primiparous woman who has recently migrated to the US with her spouse
- B. A multiparous client who lives with her husband and his family members
- C. A multiparous female with a large family living in a community
- D. A primiparous adolescent living at home with her parents and significant other
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A primiparous woman who has recently migrated to the US with her spouse is at the highest risk for psychological difficulties during the postpartum period. Recent migration and adjustment to a new environment can increase the risk of postpartum depression, especially when combined with the challenges of being a new mother. Choice B, a multiparous client living with her husband and his family, may have social support from family members, which can be protective against psychological difficulties. Choice C, a multiparous female with a large family living in a community, also indicates potential social support. Choice D, a primiparous adolescent living at home with her parents and significant other, may have a support system in place with her family and significant other.
2. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?
- A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
- B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
- C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
- D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.
3. A 16-year-old gravida 1 para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She's not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?
- A. Allow liberal family visitation
- B. Keep an airway at the bedside
- C. Assess temperature every hour
- D. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping an airway at the bedside is crucial for a client with eclampsia, as there is a high risk of seizures that can obstruct the airway. Allowing liberal family visitation (choice A) may not be a priority at this time and can be overwhelming for the client. Assessing temperature every hour (choice C) is not directly related to managing eclampsia. Monitoring blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours (choice D) is important but not as immediate as ensuring airway patency.
4. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:
- A. insomnia and nausea.
- B. infertility and impotence.
- C. Down syndrome.
- D. Turner syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.
5. When obtaining a health history from a client, a nurse in a woman’s health clinic should identify which of the following findings as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- A. Recurrent Cystitis
- B. Frequent Alcohol Use
- C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
- D. Chlamydia Infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is often caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea that ascend from the vagina to the upper reproductive organs. Recurrent cystitis (choice A) is more related to urinary tract infections, frequent alcohol use (choice B) is not directly linked to PID, and the use of oral contraceptives (choice C) does not increase the risk of developing PID.
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