which observation made of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pediatric HESI 2023

1. Which observation of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In pyloric stenosis, a palpable olive-like mass in the abdomen is a classic finding. This mass is due to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Abdominal rigidity (choice A) is associated with conditions like peritonitis, substernal retraction (choice B) is typically seen in respiratory distress, and marked distention of the lower abdomen (choice D) is more characteristic of conditions like intestinal obstruction rather than pyloric stenosis.

2. A child with a diagnosis of celiac disease is admitted to the hospital. What dietary restriction should the nurse teach the parents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid gluten.' Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by the consumption of gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. When individuals with celiac disease ingest gluten, it causes an immune response that attacks the lining of the small intestine. Therefore, avoiding gluten is crucial in managing celiac disease to prevent symptoms and intestinal damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific dietary restriction necessary for individuals with celiac disease. While some individuals with celiac disease may also have lactose intolerance (not dairy allergy) or may need to manage fat or sugar intake for other health reasons, the primary dietary focus for celiac disease is the strict avoidance of gluten-containing foods.

3. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who says, “My baby stopped breathing for a while.” The infant continues to have difficulty breathing, with prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles can be signs of respiratory distress, which may indicate trauma such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS). Shaken baby syndrome can result in brain injury and respiratory compromise, leading to breathing difficulties. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be associated with SBS. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation is more related to prematurity rather than SBS. The lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds, as well as previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds, are not specific indicators of SBS.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant and notes that the infant's urine has a mousy or musty odor. What would the healthcare provider suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is suggested by a mousy or musty odor of the urine, caused by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Maple syrup urine disease (Choice A) is characterized by a sweet-smelling urine. Tyrosinemia (Choice B) presents with cabbage-like odor in the urine. Trimethylaminuria (Choice D) results in a fishy odor in the urine, breath, and sweat.

5. During an oral cavity assessment of a 6-month-old infant, the parent inquires about which teeth will erupt first. How should the healthcare provider respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incisors are the teeth that typically erupt first in infants, usually around 6 months of age. These teeth play a crucial role in biting and cutting food. Canines, upper molars, and lower molars are not the primary teeth to erupt in infants. Canines usually erupt after incisors, while molars, whether upper or lower, come in later during the teething process.

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