Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?

• A. infection
• B. hypertension
• C. encephalopathy
• D. edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial for detecting early signs of infection, a common complication in this condition. In nephrotic syndrome, the child's immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for fever or any changes in temperature can help healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent further complications. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) refers to brain dysfunction and is not a common complication of nephrotic syndrome. Edema (choice D) is a primary manifestation of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.

2. A parent asks the nurse what to do for their child who has an earache and fever. What should the nurse suggest?

• A. Applying a warm compress to the affected ear
• B. Giving the child a cold drink
• C. Administering acetaminophen
• D. Taking the child to the emergency department

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Applying a warm compress to the affected ear is a recommended home remedy for earaches as it can help reduce pain and discomfort. The warmth can also help improve circulation and promote drainage if there is fluid buildup. Giving a cold drink (Choice B) is not typically beneficial for earaches and fever. Administering acetaminophen (Choice C) can help reduce fever and alleviate pain, but addressing the earache directly with a warm compress is a more targeted approach. Taking the child to the emergency department (Choice D) is not necessary for a common earache unless there are severe symptoms or complications present.

3. A child is brought to the clinic after tripping over a rock. The child states, 'I twisted my ankle,' and is given a diagnosis of a sprain. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for this child?

• A. For the first 24 hours, apply ice for 20 minutes and then remove for 60 minutes.
• B. Bed rest with the leg elevated for 36 hours.
• C. May take an NSAID for pain as needed.
• D. Use a compression dressing for 72 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a sprained ankle is to apply ice for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 hours, then remove for 60 minutes to prevent tissue damage. This regimen helps reduce swelling and pain. Bed rest with the leg elevated for an extended period (36 hours) may lead to stiffness and decreased range of motion. While NSAIDs can be used for pain, they may not be necessary if pain is manageable with ice and rest. Using a compression dressing for 72 hours continuously may impede proper circulation and delay healing by restricting blood flow.

4. A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering IV immunoglobulin
• B. Monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms
• C. Encouraging fluid intake
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 3-year-old child with Kawasaki disease is monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms. Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery complications, making early detection crucial in preventing serious outcomes. Administering IV immunoglobulin is a standard treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not take precedence over monitoring for potential complications. Encouraging fluid intake and providing nutritional support are important aspects of care but are not the priority when compared to monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms to prevent long-term cardiac issues.

5. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Rebound tenderness
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

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