Nursing Elites

1. When describing urticaria, what would an instructor include?

• A. It is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
• B. Histamine release leads to vasodilation.
• C. Wheals appear first followed by erythema.
• D. The nonpruritic rash blanches with pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Urticaria is a type I hypersensitivity reaction where histamine release leads to vasodilation and the formation of characteristic wheals. Choice A is incorrect as urticaria is associated with type I hypersensitivity, not type IV. Choice C is incorrect because in urticaria, erythema typically appears before the development of wheals. Choice D is incorrect as urticaria is typically pruritic and does not blanch with pressure.

2. The nurse is planning a discussion group for parents with children who have cancer. How would the nurse describe a difference between cancer in children and adults?

• A. Most childhood cancers affect tissues rather than organs.
• B. Childhood cancers are usually localized when found.
• C. Unlike adult cancers, childhood cancers are less responsive to treatment.
• D. The majority of childhood cancers can be prevented.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Most childhood cancers, such as leukemias and sarcomas, affect tissues rather than specific organs, unlike many adult cancers. Choice B is incorrect because childhood cancers may not always be localized when found. Choice C is incorrect as childhood cancers can be responsive to treatment, although treatment approaches may differ from adult cancers. Choice D is incorrect as the majority of childhood cancers cannot be prevented; however, certain risk factors can be managed to reduce the risk of developing cancer.

3. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?

• A. Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid
• B. Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn
• C. Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours
• D. Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, the majority of the volume should be administered within the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because crystalloids are typically administered first in fluid resuscitation for burns. Choice B is incorrect as fluid replacement in burn patients is primarily determined by the extent of the burn injury rather than the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as the goal for hourly urine output in burn patients is generally higher, aiming for 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion and prevent dehydration.

4. During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inspect the child's skin color.
• B. Assess for a patent airway.
• C. Observe for symmetric breathing.
• D. Palpate the child's pulse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When managing a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, the priority action during the primary survey is to assess for a patent airway. This step is crucial as burns in this region can lead to airway compromise, potentially causing rapid deterioration in the child's condition. Checking for a patent airway ensures that the child can breathe adequately, which is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Inspecting the child's skin color (Choice A) is an important assessment but should follow ensuring a patent airway. Observing for symmetric breathing (Choice C) is relevant, but the immediate focus should be on securing the airway. Palpating the child's pulse (Choice D) is also a vital assessment, but in this scenario, the priority is to assess and maintain a clear airway to support respiratory function and oxygen delivery.

5. A nurse is assessing the oral cavity of a 6-month-old infant. The parent asks which teeth will erupt first. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Incisors
• B. Canines
• C. Upper molars
• D. Lower molars

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Incisors. In infants, incisors are usually the first teeth to erupt, typically around 6 months of age. These are the front teeth used for cutting food. Canines (Choice B), upper molars (Choice C), and lower molars (Choice D) typically erupt after the incisors. Canines are sharp teeth used for tearing food, while molars are flat teeth used for grinding food.

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