Nursing Elites

1. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

2. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?

• A. XX
• B. XYY
• C. XY
• D. XXY

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.

3. Which drug was marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women and caused birth defects such as missing or stunted limbs in infants?

• A. Progestin
• B. Estrogen
• C. Thalidomide
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thalidomide is the correct answer. Thalidomide was a drug marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women as a sedative and anti-nausea medication but tragically led to severe birth defects, including limb deformities, when taken during pregnancy. Progestin (Choice A) and Estrogen (Choice B) are hormones that are not associated with causing birth defects like Thalidomide. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone that plays a role in labor and breastfeeding and is not known to cause birth defects like Thalidomide.

4. A newborn nursery protocol includes a prescription for ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment to both eyes upon a newborn's admission. What action should the nurse take to ensure adequate installation of the ointment?

• A. Instill a thin ribbon into each lower conjunctival sac
• B. Occlude the inner canthus after retracting the eyelids
• C. Mummy wrap the infant before instilling the ointment
• D. Stabilize the instilling hand on the neonate's head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To ensure adequate installation of the ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment in a newborn, the nurse should instill a thin ribbon into each lower conjunctival sac. This method helps to ensure proper distribution and effectiveness of the medication to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Occluding the inner canthus after retracting the eyelids, mummy wrapping the infant, or stabilizing the instilling hand on the neonate's head are not appropriate actions for ensuring the proper installation of the ointment.

5. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

Similar Questions