Nursing Elites

1. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?

• A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
• B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
• C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
• D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.

2. What should parents be taught when a 7-year-old child with a history of seizures is being discharged from the hospital?

• A. Administer antiepileptic medication as prescribed
• B. Ensure the child receives adequate sleep
• C. Restrict the child's activities to prevent seizures
• D. Teach seizure first aid to family members

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching seizure first aid to family members is crucial in ensuring the child's safety during a seizure. This education empowers family members to respond effectively, protect the child from injury, and provide appropriate care. Option A is incorrect because antiepileptic medication should be administered as prescribed, not only when a seizure occurs. Option B, while important for overall health, is not specific to managing seizures. Option C is incorrect as there is no evidence that restricting activities prevents seizures, and it may negatively impact the child's quality of life without offering additional safety benefits.

3. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.

4. A parent and 4-year-old child who recently emigrated from Colombia arrive at the pediatric clinic. The child has a temperature of 102°F, is irritable, and has a runny nose. Inspection reveals a rash and several small, red, irregularly shaped spots with blue-white centers in the mouth. What illness does the nurse suspect the child has?

• A. Measles
• B. Chickenpox
• C. Fifth disease
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect measles in this child. The presence of a high fever, irritability, runny nose, rash, and Koplik spots (small, red spots with blue-white centers in the mouth) are classic signs of measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly. Chickenpox (choice B) presents with a different rash pattern and does not typically involve Koplik spots. Fifth disease (choice C) and scarlet fever (choice D) also have distinct clinical presentations and are not characterized by the specific symptoms described in this case.

5. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?

• A. Rubella
• B. Rubeola
• C. Chickenpox
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.

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