Nursing Elites

1. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?

• A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
• B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
• C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
• D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.

2. A child with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital during a vaso-occlusive crisis. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administering oxygen
• B. Ensuring adequate hydration
• C. Monitoring vital signs
• D. Administering pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, ensuring adequate hydration is crucial because it helps to reduce the viscosity of the blood and prevent further sickling of the cells. Administering oxygen may be necessary in some cases to improve tissue oxygenation, but hydration is the priority to prevent complications. Monitoring vital signs is important, but hydration takes precedence during a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering pain medication is important for pain management but does not address the underlying issue of vaso-occlusion.

3. The parents of a 2-year-old child tell the nurse that they are having difficulty disciplining their child. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?

• A. “This is a challenging age for your child right now.”
• B. “Could you elaborate on your challenges? I’m not clear on what you mean.”
• C. “It’s important to be consistent with toddlers when they need discipline.”
• D. “I understand your concern. This phase is often referred to as the 'terrible twos'.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse is to emphasize the importance of consistency in discipline when dealing with toddlers. Toddlers are at a stage where they are exploring boundaries and learning what behaviors are acceptable. By being consistent, parents can help reinforce these boundaries and teach appropriate behaviors effectively. Choices A, B, and D do not provide specific guidance on how to address the discipline issue effectively. While acknowledging the challenges of this age (Choice A) and empathizing with the parents (Choice D) are important, the key point in this scenario is to highlight the significance of consistency in discipline (Choice C).

4. When assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Photophobia
• B. High fever
• C. Rash
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High fever. In bacterial meningitis, a high fever is a common clinical manifestation due to the body's inflammatory response to the infection. While photophobia (choice A) is also a common symptom in meningitis, it is not as specific as a high fever. Rash (choice C) is more commonly associated with viral infections or other conditions, rather than bacterial meningitis. Nasal congestion (choice D) is not a typical clinical manifestation of bacterial meningitis and is more commonly seen in respiratory infections. Therefore, when assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, the nurse is most likely to observe a high fever as a key clinical manifestation.

5. An infant who has had diarrhea for 3 days is admitted in a lethargic state and is breathing rapidly. The parent states that the baby has been ingesting formula, although not as much as usual, and cannot understand the sudden change. What explanation should the nurse give the parent?

• A. Cellular metabolism is unstable in young children.
• B. The proportion of water in the body is less than in adults.
• C. Renal function is immature in children until they reach school age.
• D. The extracellular fluid requirement per unit of body weight is greater than in adults.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Infants have a higher extracellular fluid requirement per unit of body weight, making them more susceptible to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances during illnesses such as diarrhea. Choice A is incorrect because cellular metabolism being unstable is not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. Choice B is incorrect as the proportion of water in the body alone does not fully explain the increased risk of dehydration in infants. Choice C is incorrect because while renal function is immature in children, it is not the most relevant factor in this scenario compared to the increased fluid requirements.

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