HESI LPN
Pediatric Practice Exam HESI
1. A parent asks a nurse how to tell the difference between measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella). What should the nurse tell the parent about rubeola that is different from rubella?
- A. High fever and Koplik spots
- B. Rash on the trunk with pruritus
- C. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps
- D. Characteristics of a cold, followed by a rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'High fever and Koplik spots.' Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a high fever and the presence of Koplik spots, which are not seen in rubella (German measles). Choice B, rash on the trunk with pruritus, is more indicative of rubella. Choice C, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, are not specific to either rubeola or rubella. Choice D, characteristics of a cold followed by a rash, is not a typical presentation of rubeola or rubella.
2. A child with a diagnosis of congenital heart disease is admitted to the hospital. What should the nurse include in the child’s care plan?
- A. Monitoring fluid status
- B. Encouraging activity
- C. Promoting a high-calorie diet
- D. Maintaining oxygen therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring fluid status is crucial for a child with congenital heart disease because these children are at risk of fluid overload which can worsen their condition. Monitoring fluid intake and output helps prevent complications like congestive heart failure. Encouraging activity (Choice B) should be individualized based on the child's condition and tolerance, as excessive activity can strain the heart. Promoting a high-calorie diet (Choice C) is not typically recommended for children with congenital heart disease unless specifically indicated, as excessive weight gain can worsen their cardiac function. Maintaining oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but monitoring fluid status is a more fundamental aspect of care for children with congenital heart disease.
3. The nurse is assessing a 9-year-old girl with a history of tuberculosis at age 6 years. She has been losing weight and has no appetite. The nurse suspects Addison disease based on which assessment findings?
- A. Arrested height and increased weight
- B. Thin, fragile skin and multiple bruises
- C. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension
- D. Blurred vision and enuresis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a child with suspected Addison disease, the presence of hyperpigmentation (bronzing of the skin) and hypotension are key clinical findings. Hyperpigmentation is due to increased ACTH stimulation, resulting in melanocyte stimulation. Hypotension occurs due to decreased aldosterone production and subsequent sodium loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Arrested height and increased weight are not typical of Addison disease; thin, fragile skin and multiple bruises are more indicative of conditions like Cushing's syndrome; blurred vision and enuresis are not typically associated with Addison disease.
4. A child with a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is scheduled for surgery. What preoperative intervention is important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Administering intravenous fluids
- B. Monitoring for signs of infection
- C. Monitoring for signs of dehydration
- D. Monitoring for signs of pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct preoperative intervention for a child with pyloric stenosis is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Pyloric stenosis involves the obstruction of the pyloric sphincter, leading to projectile vomiting, which can result in dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring for signs of dehydration is crucial to assess the child's fluid status and prevent complications. Administering intravenous fluids, although important in managing dehydration, is not typically a preoperative intervention but rather a treatment during or after surgery. Monitoring for signs of infection and pain may also be important but are not the priority preoperative interventions in a child with pyloric stenosis.
5. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who has difficulty breathing and prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?
- A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
- B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
- C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
- D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles are signs of respiratory distress in infants. These clinical manifestations can be associated with trauma, such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS), which can lead to severe head injuries and respiratory compromise. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation (Choice A) is more related to prematurity complications rather than SBS. The absence of stridor and adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) may not be specific indicators of SBS. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds (Choice C) alone may not be as concerning as the presence of retractions and use of accessory muscles in the context of a distressed infant.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access