Nursing Elites

1. After surgery to correct hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) in a 3-week-old infant who had been formula-fed, which postoperative feeding order is appropriate?

• A. Thickened formula 24 hours after surgery
• B. Withholding feedings for the first 24 hours
• C. Regular formula feeding within 24 hours after surgery
• D. Additional glucose feedings as desired after the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), it is appropriate to resume regular formula feeding within 24 hours postoperatively to promote recovery. Choice A, thickened formula after surgery, may be too heavy for the infant's digestive system at this early stage. Withholding feedings for the first 24 hours (Choice B) is not recommended as early feeding helps with recovery. Additional glucose feedings (Choice D) are not necessary and may not provide the balanced nutrition required after surgery.

2. What should be included in the nursing plan of care for a 6-month-old infant admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?

• A. Place the infant in a warm, dry environment.
• B. Allow parents and siblings to visit.
• C. Maintain standard and contact precautions.
• D. Administer prescribed antibiotics immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain standard and contact precautions. RSV is highly contagious, primarily spread through respiratory secretions. Therefore, it is crucial to implement infection control measures such as standard and contact precautions to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients, staff, and visitors. Choice A is incorrect because warmth and dryness are not specific interventions for RSV; the focus should be on infection control. Choice B may increase the risk of exposing others to RSV, so limiting visitors is recommended. Choice D is unnecessary because RSV is a viral infection, and antibiotics are not effective against viruses.

3. A nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering chemotherapy
• B. Preventing infection
• C. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is preventing infection. In caring for a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), preventing infection is the priority nursing intervention. Children with ALL are immunocompromised due to the disease and its treatment, making them more susceptible to infections. Administering chemotherapy, while important, is not the priority as preventing infection takes precedence to avoid complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding and providing nutritional support are also essential components of care for a child with ALL, but preventing infection is the priority to ensure the child's safety and well-being.

4. A child has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What position should the nurse recommend the child be placed in after eating?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After eating, it is beneficial to place a child with GERD in a semi-Fowler's position. This position helps prevent reflux by keeping the child's head elevated above the stomach, reducing the chances of gastric contents flowing back into the esophagus. Placing the child supine (lying flat on their back) can worsen reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to work against the natural flow of gastric contents. Prone position (lying on the stomach) is not recommended due to the increased risk of aspiration. Trendelenburg position (feet elevated above head) is also inappropriate as it can lead to increased pressure on the abdomen, potentially worsening reflux symptoms.

5. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Similar Questions