Nursing Elites

1. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

2. An 8-year-old child with the diagnosis of meningitis is to have a lumbar puncture. What should the nurse explain is the purpose of this procedure?

• A. To measure the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid
• B. To obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis
• C. To relieve intracranial pressure
• D. To assess the presence of infection in the spinal fluid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. This sample helps in diagnosing conditions such as meningitis by evaluating the presence of pathogens or abnormalities in the cerebrospinal fluid. Measuring the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (Choice A) is not the main objective of a lumbar puncture, although it can be done during the procedure. Relieving intracranial pressure (Choice C) is not the direct purpose of a lumbar puncture, as other interventions are typically used for this purpose. Assessing the presence of infection in the spinal fluid (Choice D) is related to the overall goal of obtaining a sample for analysis, making it a secondary outcome of the procedure.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant and notes that the infant's urine has a mousy or musty odor. What would the healthcare provider suspect?

• A. Maple syrup urine disease
• B. Tyrosinemia
• C. Phenylketonuria
• D. Trimethylaminuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is suggested by a mousy or musty odor of the urine, caused by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Maple syrup urine disease (Choice A) is characterized by a sweet-smelling urine. Tyrosinemia (Choice B) presents with cabbage-like odor in the urine. Trimethylaminuria (Choice D) results in a fishy odor in the urine, breath, and sweat.

4. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:

• A. nondisjunction.
• B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
• C. genomic imprinting.
• D. autosomal dominant inheritance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: nondisjunction. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division leading to an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. X-linked recessive inheritance refers to genetic disorders carried on the X chromosome, genomic imprinting involves gene expression based on parental origin, and autosomal dominant inheritance relates to disorders caused by a dominant gene on one of the non-sex chromosomes. In the case of trisomy 21, the cause is specifically related to the error in chromosome division, making nondisjunction the most appropriate answer.

5. A mother confides to the nurse that she is thinking of divorce. Which suggestion by the nurse would help minimize the effects on the child?

• A. Tell the child together using appropriate terms.
• B. Reassure the child that no one loves him more than his parents.
• C. Engage in special activities with the child to compensate for the divorce.
• D. Keep your feelings to yourself and maintain a positive facade with the child.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In situations of divorce, it is crucial for both parents to inform the child together using age-appropriate language. This approach helps maintain consistency and clarity for the child, reducing confusion and anxiety. Choice B is incorrect because reassurance should not be solely focused on love but on explaining the situation appropriately. Choice C may inadvertently send the message that the divorce is the child's fault or requires compensation. Choice D is incorrect as children benefit from understanding and processing emotions in a healthy manner, rather than having them kept hidden.

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