Nursing Elites

1. A parent and 4-year-old child who recently emigrated from Colombia arrive at the pediatric clinic. The child has a temperature of 102°F, is irritable, and has a runny nose. Inspection reveals a rash and several small, red, irregularly shaped spots with blue-white centers in the mouth. What illness does the nurse suspect the child has?

• A. Measles
• B. Chickenpox
• C. Fifth disease
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect measles based on the symptoms described, including the presence of Koplik spots (small, red spots with blue-white centers in the mouth). Measles typically presents with fever, irritability, runny nose, and a rash that begins on the face and spreads downward. Chickenpox (choice B) presents with vesicular lesions in different stages of healing and usually starts on the trunk. Fifth disease (choice C) presents with a 'slapped cheek' rash on the face and can cause joint pain. Scarlet fever (choice D) is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash, fever, and strawberry tongue.

2. A 3-year-old child has a sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illnesses or fever. You should suspect

• A. croup
• B. epiglottitis
• C. lower respiratory infection
• D. foreign body airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child presenting with sudden respiratory distress without fever or recent illness, the most likely cause is a foreign body airway obstruction. Foreign body airway obstruction can lead to a sudden onset of respiratory distress as it blocks the air passage. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and stridor, often preceded by a viral illness. Epiglottitis is characterized by high fever, drooling, and a muffled voice. Lower respiratory infections usually present with symptoms such as cough, fever, and chest congestion. Therefore, in this case, the absence of recent illness or fever makes foreign body airway obstruction the most likely cause of the respiratory distress.

3. A child with a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering insulin
• B. Monitoring fluid balance
• C. Administering diuretics
• D. Monitoring vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring fluid balance. In a child with diabetes insipidus, the primary concern is excessive urination and fluid loss, which can lead to dehydration. Monitoring fluid balance is crucial to prevent dehydration and maintain electrolyte balance. Administering insulin (Choice A) is not indicated in diabetes insipidus, as this condition is not related to insulin deficiency. Administering diuretics (Choice C) should be avoided as it can exacerbate fluid loss in a child already at risk for dehydration. While monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is important, the priority intervention in this situation is monitoring fluid balance to prevent complications associated with dehydration.

4. A nurse is discussing the care of an infant with colic with the parents. What should the nurse explain is the cause of colicky behavior?

• A. Inadequate peristalsis
• B. Paroxysmal abdominal pain
• C. An allergic response to certain proteins in milk
• D. A protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Paroxysmal abdominal pain. Colic in infants is characterized by paroxysmal abdominal pain, leading to excessive crying and fussiness. It is not caused by inadequate peristalsis (Choice A), an allergic response to certain proteins in milk (Choice C), or a protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins (Choice D). Understanding that colic is primarily associated with abdominal pain helps healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support to parents dealing with colicky infants.

5. An 8-year-old girl was diagnosed with a closed fracture of the radius at approximately 2 p.m. The fracture was reduced in the emergency department, and her arm placed in a cast. At 11 p.m., her mother brings her back to the emergency department due to unrelenting pain that has not been relieved by the prescribed narcotics. Which action would be the priority?

• A. Notifying the doctor immediately
• B. Applying ice
• C. Elevating the arm
• D. Giving additional pain medication as ordered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action would be to notify the doctor immediately. Unrelenting pain despite medication can indicate compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention. Applying ice or elevating the arm may not address the potential serious underlying issue of compartment syndrome. Giving additional pain medication without further assessment could delay necessary intervention and potentially worsen the condition.

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