Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following findings would indicate altered mental status in a small child?

• A. Recognizing the parents
• B. Showing fright at the EMT-B's presence
• C. Displaying a lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence
• D. Maintaining consistent eye contact with the EMT-B

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a small child, displaying a lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence would indicate altered mental status. This behavior suggests a diminished level of consciousness or awareness, which is concerning. Recognizing the parents (Choice A) is a normal and expected behavior for a child. Showing fright at the EMT-B's presence (Choice B) may indicate fear or anxiety but not necessarily altered mental status. Maintaining consistent eye contact with the EMT-B (Choice D) may indicate engagement or curiosity rather than altered mental status.

2. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

3. A parent of an 11-month-old infant who has a cleft palate asks the nurse why it was recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2. How should the nurse respond?

• A. “After age 2, surgery is frightening and should be avoided if possible.”
• B. “Eruption of the 2-year molars often complicates the surgical procedure.”
• C. “As your child gets older, the palate gets wider and more difficult to repair.”
• D. “Surgery should be performed before your child starts to use faulty speech patterns.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Closure of the cleft palate is recommended before the age of 2 to prevent the development of faulty speech patterns. Performing surgery at a younger age helps avoid speech difficulties that may arise if the repair is delayed. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on fear, not the developmental aspect. Choice B is incorrect as the eruption of molars is not the primary reason for early surgery. Choice C is incorrect because the difficulty of repair is not solely related to the width of the palate but also to speech development.

4. A 3-year-old child with a history of frequent respiratory infections is being evaluated for cystic fibrosis. What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate will be ordered?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sweat chloride test
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Sputum culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the sweat chloride test. This test is crucial in diagnosing cystic fibrosis as it measures the amount of chloride in sweat, which is typically elevated in individuals with cystic fibrosis. A chest X-ray (Choice A) may show characteristic findings like hyperinflation or bronchiectasis, but it is not a definitive diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis. Pulmonary function tests (Choice C) may help assess lung function but are not specific for cystic fibrosis. Sputum culture (Choice D) may be used to identify specific pathogens causing respiratory infections but is not a primary diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis.

5. The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?

• A. abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation
• B. rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds
• C. visible peristalsis and weight loss
• D. distention of the lower abdomen and constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visible peristalsis and weight loss are classic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis. The obstruction at the pyloric sphincter causes visible peristalsis as the stomach tries to push food through the narrowed opening, leading to the appearance of waves across the abdomen. Weight loss occurs due to poor feeding and frequent vomiting associated with pyloric stenosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation, rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds, as well as distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not typically seen in pyloric stenosis.

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