HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. What instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client experiencing heartburn?
- A. Limit fluid intake between meals to prevent stomach over-distension
- B. Take an antacid at bedtime and when symptoms worsen
- C. Maintain an upright position for two hours after eating
- D. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.' Heartburn is common in pregnancy due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and hormonal changes. Consuming small, frequent meals prevents the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux and heartburn. Choice A is incorrect because limiting fluid intake between meals may not significantly impact heartburn. Choice B is not ideal as antacids should be taken as directed by a healthcare provider, not just at bedtime or when symptoms worsen. Choice C is less effective advice, as maintaining an upright position after eating may not directly address the root cause of heartburn.
2. At 1130, the nurse assumes care of an adult client with diabetes mellitus who was admitted with an infected foot ulcer. After reviewing the client’s electronic health record, which priority nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer insulin based on the sliding scale
- B. Assess the appearance of the foot wound
- C. Obtain antibiotic peak and trough levels
- D. Initiate hourly measurements of urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the appearance of the foot wound is the priority action in this scenario. This assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of infection progression or complications related to the foot ulcer, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Administering insulin based on the sliding scale (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the foot wound. Obtaining antibiotic peak and trough levels (Choice C) is relevant but not as immediate as assessing the wound for signs of infection. Initiating hourly measurements of urine output (Choice D) is not the priority when compared to assessing the foot wound in a client with an infected foot ulcer.
3. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
- B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
- D. Administer an antihypertensive agent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.
4. A client with endometrial carcinoma is receiving brachytherapy and has radioactive Cesium loaded in a vaginal applicator. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Wear a dosimeter film badge when in the client’s room
- B. Spend 30 minutes at the bedside when providing direct care
- C. Change the linens every day after assisting with a bed bath
- D. Use gloves to remove the applicator if it is dislodged in the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when caring for a client with a radioactive Cesium-loaded vaginal applicator during brachytherapy is to wear a dosimeter film badge when in the client’s room. Wearing a dosimeter badge is essential to monitor radiation exposure and ensure the safety of healthcare providers. Choice B is incorrect as the duration is not specified and unnecessary. Choice C is incorrect as changing linens daily does not directly relate to radiation safety. Choice D is incorrect as using gloves to remove the applicator if dislodged is important but not the primary action to monitor radiation exposure.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.
- B. Assess blood pressure and heart rate at least every 4 hours.
- C. Measure calf girth to evaluate edema in the affected leg.
- D. Encourage mobilization to prevent pulmonary embolism.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access