Nursing Elites

1. What instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client experiencing heartburn?

• A. Limit fluid intake between meals to prevent stomach over-distension
• B. Take an antacid at bedtime and when symptoms worsen
• C. Maintain an upright position for two hours after eating
• D. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.' Heartburn is common in pregnancy due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and hormonal changes. Consuming small, frequent meals prevents the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux and heartburn. Choice A is incorrect because limiting fluid intake between meals may not significantly impact heartburn. Choice B is not ideal as antacids should be taken as directed by a healthcare provider, not just at bedtime or when symptoms worsen. Choice C is less effective advice, as maintaining an upright position after eating may not directly address the root cause of heartburn.

2. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

3. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse Type A negative blood until type AB negative is available.
• B. Recheck the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor.
• C. Administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
• D. Obtain additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

4. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?

• A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain
• B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago
• C. A young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day
• D. A middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are at higher risk for delirium, especially following a recent suicide attempt, which can be a significant stressor. Choice A is less likely to develop delirium solely due to difficulty sleeping; delirium is more complex and multifactorial. Choice C, a young adult taking antipsychotic medications, may be at risk for other conditions but not necessarily delirium. Choice D, a middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen, is not directly linked to an increased risk of delirium compared to the older client who recently attempted suicide.

5. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion, and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake
• B. Eat meals at the same time daily
• C. Maintain a low-protein diet
• D. Limit the intake of high-calorie foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dependent edema in both lower legs is a sign of fluid overload, which can exacerbate dyspnea in patients with COPD. Restricting daily fluid intake can help reduce the edema and alleviate breathing difficulties. A low-protein diet is not necessary unless there are specific renal concerns. Eating meals at the same time daily or limiting high-calorie foods is not directly associated with addressing fluid overload and dyspnea in COPD patients.

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