HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. Which entry in the client record best reflects significant data on a male client who is admitted with complaints of chest pain?
- A. Nurse will check client q1h for the presence of chest pain
- B. Client has a nervous, tense personality and is likely to overreact
- C. Client states he will notify the nurse if chest pain returns
- D. Client understands how to use the call button and the telephone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because documenting the client's statement about notifying the nurse if chest pain returns provides direct, relevant information about their condition. This entry indicates the client's awareness of their symptoms and their willingness to seek assistance, which is crucial in managing chest pain. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the client's condition. Choice B is irrelevant as it discusses the client's personality rather than their current health issue. Choice D, though related to communication, does not directly address the client's chest pain complaint.
2. Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?
- A. Decreased respiratory rate
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.
3. An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Palpate the client’s suprapubic area for distention
- B. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week
- C. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis
- D. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Advising the client to maintain a voiding diary is the appropriate action in this case. A voiding diary helps track symptoms and patterns essential for diagnosing conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia or other urinary issues. Palpating the client’s suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) may provide information about bladder fullness but does not address the need for tracking symptoms. Instructing the client in techniques for cleansing the glans penis (Choice C) is not relevant to the client's urinary complaints. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice D) may be necessary but does not directly address the client's symptoms of weak urine flow and difficulty initiating the urine stream.
4. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
- B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
- C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
- D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.
5. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Discontinue the IO infusion
- B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
- C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to discontinue the IO infusion. The client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site suggest a complication, such as extravasation or compartment syndrome. By discontinuing the infusion, further harm can be prevented. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity would not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the condition. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stopping the infusion to seek further guidance or intervention.
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