HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity
- B. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds
- C. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention
- D. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Abdominal rigidity in a client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus indicates possible complications and requires immediate assessment. Choice B is incorrect because although a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds is concerning, abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus takes priority. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal distention, though indicative of an obstruction, is not as urgent as the sign of abdominal rigidity. Choice D is incorrect as the drainage of greenish fluid from a nasogastric tube in a client with a small bowel obstruction, while concerning, does not present as immediate a threat as the abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus.
2. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
3. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?
- A. Vanilla frozen yogurt
- B. Vegetable juice
- C. Clear beef broth
- D. Canned fruit cocktail
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer should be provided as choice E: Vanilla frozen yogurt. For a postoperative full liquid diet, the nurse should encourage the client to eat foods that are fully liquid and easy to digest. Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable choice as it provides calories and nutrients while being in a liquid form. Creamy peanut butter, vegetable juice, and canned fruit cocktail are not appropriate for a full liquid diet as they are not fully liquid and may not be easy to digest. Creamy peanut butter is solid, vegetable juice is not fully liquid, and canned fruit cocktail contains solid pieces.
4. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
- A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
- B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
- C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
- D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.
5. For a client with pneumonia, the prescription states, “Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing.” Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client’s respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity. Administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods can overwhelm the body's natural defenses against high oxygen levels, causing toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is unrelated to preventing oxygen toxicity. Choice C is unsafe as removing the nasal cannula can deprive the client of necessary oxygen. Choice D, running oxygen through a hydration source, is not a standard practice for preventing oxygen toxicity.
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