Nursing Elites

1. The client has silvery scaling plaques bilaterally on elbows, forearms, and palms. When scratched, the skin bleeds over these plaques. What is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Interventions to decrease emotional stress
• B. Precautions about avoiding sunlight
• C. Strategies to increase omega-3 fatty acids in the diet
• D. Instruct about applying a corticosteroid cream

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important aspect to include in this client's plan of care is interventions to decrease emotional stress. Psoriasis, characterized by silvery scaling plaques on the skin, can be exacerbated by emotional stress. Managing stress is crucial in controlling the condition. Precautions about avoiding sunlight are important in psoriasis management, but emotional stress has a more significant impact. While omega-3 fatty acids may provide some benefits, stress management should take priority. Applying a corticosteroid cream may help with symptoms, but addressing emotional stress is crucial for long-term management of psoriasis.

2. The nurse receives change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

• A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm on the dressing
• B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
• C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
• D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing and fever and chills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A collapsed lung with significant blood accumulation requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory compromise. Option A may also require attention, but the immediate threat to airway and breathing in option C takes precedence over the others. Option B has expected drainage after a mastectomy, and option D's fever and chills, while concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk as in option C.

3. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

4. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

5. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

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