Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

2. A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day
• B. Observe for evidence of hypokalemia
• C. Teach the client how to restrict dietary sodium
• D. Monitor PTT, PT, and INR lab values

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.

3. A 12-year-old client who had an appendectomy two days ago is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.035. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage popsicles and fluids of choice
• B. Evaluate postural blood pressure measurements
• C. Obtain a specimen for urinalysis
• D. Assess bowel sounds in all quadrants

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging fluids helps address dehydration and potentially high urine specific gravity, which is often related to inadequate fluid intake. In this scenario, the client may be at risk of dehydration due to the appendectomy and the high urine specific gravity. Encouraging popsicles and fluids of choice can help increase fluid intake and improve hydration status. The other options are not the priority at this time. Postural blood pressure measurements may be relevant for assessing fluid status but are not the immediate action needed. Obtaining a specimen for urinalysis and assessing bowel sounds are not the priority actions based on the client's condition.

4. Before administering an intramuscular injection, the nurse's finger is stuck with the needle. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Go to the emergency room to have blood drawn
• B. Prepare the medication using a new syringe
• C. Apply clean gloves before giving the medication
• D. Review the medical history in the client's chart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse's finger is stuck with the needle before administering the injection, the correct action is to prepare the medication using a new syringe. This step is crucial to prevent contamination and ensure the safety of the patient. Going to the emergency room to have blood drawn is unnecessary and does not address the immediate issue of contamination. Applying clean gloves is important for infection control but does not address the potential contamination from the needlestick. Reviewing the medical history in the client's chart is important for overall patient care but is not the priority in this situation where immediate action is required to prevent harm.

5. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

Similar Questions