Nursing Elites

1. When developing a plan of care for a client in the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Risk for injury.
• B. Ineffective coping mechanisms.
• C. Alteration in comfort.
• D. Ineffective breathing patterns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client aspirates a caustic material, the priority nursing diagnosis should focus on addressing physiological concerns, particularly related to breathing patterns. Aspiration of caustic material can lead to airway compromise, respiratory distress, and potential lung damage. Therefore, monitoring and addressing ineffective breathing patterns are crucial for ensuring the client's immediate safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important considerations in psychiatric care but are secondary to the critical physiological issue of ineffective breathing patterns in this scenario.

2. In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?

• A. Encourage problem solving
• B. Encourage accomplishment of the group's work
• C. Acknowledge the contributions of each group member
• D. Encourage members to become acquainted with one another

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.

3. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.

• A. Communicate expected behaviors to the client
• B. Ensure that the client knows that he or she is not in charge of the nursing unit
• C. Assist the client in identifying ways of setting limits on personal behaviors
• D. Follow through about the consequences of behavior in a non-punitive manner

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.

4. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

5. The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?

• A. The wife's inquiry is reasonable.
• B. Education about her husband's medication is needed.
• C. Her expectations of her husband are realistic.
• D. An increase in the client's medication is needed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The wife needs education about her husband's medication to understand how it affects his perceptions, including paranoid thoughts about food. Choice A is incorrect because the wife's inquiry reflects her lack of understanding of the situation rather than being reasonable. Choice C is incorrect as the husband's condition requires specialized care beyond what the wife might consider realistic. Choice D is incorrect as increasing medication should not be the immediate response; education and reassurance are key in this situation.

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