Nursing Elites

1. When both of the alleles for a trait, such as hair color, are the same, the person is said to be _____ for that trait.

• A. monozygous
• B. dizygous
• C. homozygous
• D. hemizygous

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A person is homozygous for a trait when they have two identical alleles for that trait. In this case, both alleles are the same, indicating a homozygous genotype. Choice A, 'monozygous,' is incorrect as it refers to identical twins originating from a single fertilized egg. Choice B, 'dizygous,' is also incorrect as it refers to fraternal twins or individuals that develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Choice D, 'hemizygous,' is incorrect because it describes a genetic condition where only one allele is present in a diploid organism, typically related to genes on the sex chromosomes.

2. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

• A. Retained placental fragments.
• B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
• C. Uterine atony.
• D. Puerperal infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

3. Which procedure is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities?

• A. Artificial insemination
• B. Amniocentesis
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay. This blood test measures the level of AFP in a pregnant woman's blood, aiding in the detection of neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Choice A, artificial insemination, is a method used to facilitate fertilization and is not related to detecting fetal abnormalities. Choice B, amniocentesis, involves collecting amniotic fluid for genetic testing, not directly measuring AFP levels. Choice C, endometriosis, is a medical condition involving abnormal tissue growth and is not a procedure for detecting fetal abnormalities. Therefore, the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is the most appropriate option for detecting neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.

4. Rubella, also called German measles, is a viral infection passed from the mother to the fetus that can cause birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo.

• A. Rubella
• B. Syphilis
• C. Cystic fibrosis
• D. Phenylketonuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can lead to severe birth defects when contracted by a mother during pregnancy. Rubella is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with causing birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo. Syphilis (Choice B) can be passed from mother to fetus but does not cause the mentioned birth defects associated with Rubella. Cystic fibrosis (Choice C) and Phenylketonuria (Choice D) are genetic conditions and not infections transmitted from mother to fetus, making them incorrect choices in this context.

5. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is receiving teaching about expected changes during pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Your stomach will empty rapidly
• B. You should expect your uterus to double in size
• C. You should anticipate nasal stuffiness
• D. Your nipples will become lighter in color

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nasal stuffiness is a common symptom during pregnancy due to increased blood flow and hormonal changes. This symptom is caused by the increased blood volume and hormonal changes that lead to swelling of the nasal passages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stomach emptying rate does not significantly change during pregnancy; the uterus does not double in size at 24 weeks but rather grows steadily, and nipples typically darken in color due to increased pigmentation.

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