when admitting a client the nurse records which information in the clients record first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. When admitting a client, what information should the nurse record in the client’s record first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When admitting a client, the nurse's first step should be to assess the client. Assessment is crucial as it helps establish a baseline of the client's condition, identify any immediate concerns, and guide the development of an individualized plan of care. Recording the client's medical history, plan of care, or vital signs may follow the initial assessment but are secondary to the primary assessment process.

2. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

4. While changing a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is a highly contagious bacterium that spreads through direct contact. Contact precautions involve wearing gloves and gowns to prevent the spread of infection to other patients or healthcare workers. Force-feeding oral fluids, requesting a nutrition consult, or limiting visitors to immediate family only are not the most appropriate actions in this scenario. These actions do not directly address the need to prevent the spread of MRSA, which is crucial in a healthcare setting.

5. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

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