HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. When admitting a client, what information should the nurse record in the client’s record first?
- A. Assessment of the client
- B. Client’s medical history
- C. Plan of care
- D. Vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When admitting a client, the nurse's first step should be to assess the client. Assessment is crucial as it helps establish a baseline of the client's condition, identify any immediate concerns, and guide the development of an individualized plan of care. Recording the client's medical history, plan of care, or vital signs may follow the initial assessment but are secondary to the primary assessment process.
2. When a client files a lawsuit against an LPN for malpractice, the client must prove that there is a link between the harm suffered and actions performed by the nurse that were negligent. This is known as:
- A. Evidence
- B. Tort discovery
- C. Proximate cause
- D. Common cause
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Proximate cause.' Proximate cause establishes the link between the harm suffered and the negligent actions performed by the nurse. In a malpractice lawsuit, proving proximate cause is essential to demonstrate that the nurse's actions directly led to the harm experienced by the client. Choice A, 'Evidence,' is incorrect as evidence is the information presented to support or refute a claim, not specifically the link between harm and negligence. Choice B, 'Tort discovery,' is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to establishing the link between harm and negligence. Choice D, 'Common cause,' is incorrect as it does not capture the legal concept of proximate cause in establishing liability in malpractice cases.
3. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?
- A. Spaghetti
- B. Watermelon
- C. Chicken
- D. Tomatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.
4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
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