Nursing Elites

1. The client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself every day at the same time.
• B. I will call my doctor if my legs swell more.
• C. I will take my water pill only when I feel short of breath.
• D. I will limit the amount of salt in my diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to help manage fluid retention in chronic heart failure. This statement indicates a need for further teaching as the client needs to understand the importance of consistent medication adherence. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of self-care management in heart failure, including daily weight monitoring, prompt reporting of worsening symptoms to the healthcare provider, and dietary sodium restriction, respectively.

2. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

• A. These are normal signs of aging.
• B. These are early signs of dementia.
• C. These are purely psychological in origin.
• D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

3. A client is scheduled for hip surgery in an hour. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

• A. Ensure that the client signs the consent form.
• B. Lock the client’s valuables in a secure location.
• C. Verify the client’s lab values in the medical record.
• D. Administer the prescribed preoperative sedative.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse’s priority is to ensure that the client signs the consent form before the hip surgery. This is crucial as it ensures that the client has provided informed consent for the procedure. Locking valuables, verifying lab values, and administering sedatives are important tasks but ensuring consent takes precedence as it directly impacts the client’s right to make decisions about their care.

4. A nursing assistive personnel (AP) is providing AM care to patients. Which action by the NAP will require the nurse to intervene?

• A. Not offering a backrub to a patient with fractured ribs
• B. Not offering to wash the hair of a patient with neck trauma
• C. Turning off the television while giving a backrub to the patient
• D. Turning the patient's head with neck injury to the side when giving oral care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Turning a patient's head with a neck injury to the side when giving oral care can lead to harm or further injury. The neck should be kept in a neutral position to prevent exacerbation of the injury. Choices A, B, and C are not actions that require immediate nurse intervention. Not offering a backrub, not washing a patient's hair, or turning off the television are not critical issues that pose harm to the patient's well-being or safety.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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