Nursing Elites

1. What is a common early sign of RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) in infants?

• A. High fever
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Rash
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal congestion is a common early sign of RSV in infants, often accompanied by cough and wheezing. High fever, rash, and jaundice are not typically associated with RSV. While RSV can lead to fever, it is usually not one of the earliest signs. Rash and jaundice are unrelated to RSV symptoms.

2. Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as what?

• A. peer review
• B. cohort review
• C. research intervention
• D. double-blind examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: peer review. Before publication, research findings must undergo peer review, where experts in the field evaluate the validity and significance of the study. Choice B, cohort review, is incorrect as it does not involve the same level of evaluation by experts. Choice C, research intervention, is not a term used to describe the evaluation process before publication. Choice D, double-blind examination, refers to a study design where neither the participants nor the researchers know who is receiving a particular treatment, which is not the same as the peer review process.

3. What should be assessed in a child with suspected appendicitis?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Bowel sounds and pain location
• C. Skin color and temperature
• D. Heart rate and blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess bowel sounds and pain location. In a child with suspected appendicitis, focusing on bowel sounds and pain location, particularly in the lower right quadrant, is crucial. This assessment helps to identify symptoms commonly associated with appendicitis. Assessing the level of consciousness (Choice A) is important in other conditions such as head injuries or neurological issues. Skin color and temperature (Choice C) are more indicative of circulatory or skin-related problems. Heart rate and blood pressure (Choice D) are vital signs that are essential to assess in various conditions but are not specific to suspected appendicitis.

4. Which statement best describes the relationship between diet and chronic diseases?

• A. Diet has no impact on chronic diseases.
• B. A poor diet can increase the risk of developing chronic diseases.
• C. Diet is the sole cause of chronic diseases.
• D. A balanced diet can help prevent or manage chronic diseases.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. A poor diet can increase the risk of developing chronic diseases due to the lack of essential nutrients or the presence of harmful components like excessive sugar, salt, or saturated fats. While diet plays a significant role in the development of chronic diseases, it is not the sole cause (choice C). Choice A is incorrect because diet does indeed have a significant impact on chronic diseases. Choice D is not the best answer as it does not acknowledge the negative impact of a poor diet on chronic diseases.

5. The parents of a child with sickle cell anemia ask why their child experiences pain. What is the most likely cause?

• A. Inflammation of the vessels
• B. Obstructed blood flow
• C. Overhydration
• D. Stress-related headaches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In sickle cell anemia, pain is primarily caused by the obstruction of blood flow by sickle-shaped cells. This obstruction leads to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues, resulting in tissue damage and pain. Choice A, inflammation of the vessels, is incorrect as it is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia. Choice C, overhydration, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia and would not lead to the characteristic pain experienced. Choice D, stress-related headaches, is also unrelated to the underlying mechanisms of pain in sickle cell anemia.

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