Nursing Elites

1. What is a common early sign of RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) in infants?

• A. High fever
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Rash
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal congestion is a common early sign of RSV in infants, often accompanied by cough and wheezing. High fever, rash, and jaundice are not typically associated with RSV. While RSV can lead to fever, it is usually not one of the earliest signs. Rash and jaundice are unrelated to RSV symptoms.

2. Why must a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis be kept NPO?

• A. The epinephrine administration may cause nausea and vomiting
• B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids
• C. The child may not feel hungry
• D. Rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute laryngotracheobronchitis, rapid respirations increase the risk of aspiration due to compromised airway protection and potential for secretions to enter the lungs. Keeping the child NPO helps prevent the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine is not typically used for laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids does not eliminate the risk of aspiration. Choice C is also incorrect because the child being hungry is not the primary reason for keeping them NPO in this condition.

3. What is an important consideration when administering medications to a child with hepatic dysfunction?

• A. Increased dosing intervals
• B. Adjustments in dosage due to altered metabolism
• C. Avoid all medications
• D. Use only topical medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering medications to a child with hepatic dysfunction, it is crucial to make adjustments in dosage due to altered metabolism. Hepatic dysfunction can affect the way medications are metabolized in the body, potentially leading to drug toxicity or reduced effectiveness. This is why adjusting the dosage is essential to ensure the medication is both safe and efficient. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dosing intervals, avoiding all medications, or using only topical medications do not address the specific issue of altered drug metabolism in hepatic dysfunction.

4. What is the main purpose of Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs)?

• A. To provide guidelines for nutrient intakes that meet the needs of most healthy people.
• B. To specify the minimum amount of nutrients required for survival.
• C. To establish maximum safe levels of nutrient intakes.
• D. To recommend specific nutrient intake levels to prevent chronic diseases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main purpose of Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) is to provide guidelines for nutrient intakes that meet the needs of most healthy people. Choice B is incorrect because RDAs aim beyond just survival requirements. Choice C is incorrect because establishing maximum safe levels is the role of Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs). Choice D is incorrect because preventing chronic diseases is more associated with Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) like Adequate Intakes (AIs) and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs). Therefore, the correct answer is A.

5. What term describes foods that contain non-nutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food's nutrients?

• A. fortified foods
• B. enriched foods
• C. functional foods
• D. health-enhancing foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Functional foods are specifically designed to promote health benefits beyond basic nutrition. Fortified foods (choice A) are those with added nutrients that are not originally present, enriched foods (choice B) have nutrients added back that were lost during processing, and health-enhancing foods (choice D) is a vague and less specific term compared to functional foods.

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