Nursing Elites

1. To succeed in her health education program, the PHN needs to be adept in:

• A. teaching-learning strategies
• B. providing accurate information
• C. communicating ideas effectively
• D. all of these

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To excel in a health education program, a Public Health Nurse (PHN) must possess a combination of teaching-learning strategies to effectively impart knowledge, provide accurate information to ensure credibility, and communicate ideas effectively to engage and interact with the audience. Therefore, all of these skills are essential for a PHN to succeed in her health education program. Choices A, B, and C are integral components of a successful health education program, making option D the correct answer.

2. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:

• A. aggressive interventions
• B. detection
• C. culture
• D. education

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.

3. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

4. A young child is admitted for treatment of lead poisoning. The nurse recognizes that the most serious effect of chronic lead poisoning is

• A. Central nervous system damage
• B. Moderate anemia
• C. Renal tubule damage
• D. Growth impairment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Chronic lead poisoning can lead to severe and irreversible damage to the central nervous system, including cognitive and developmental delays. Central nervous system damage is the most serious effect of chronic lead poisoning because it can have long-lasting consequences on a child's cognitive function and overall development. Moderate anemia (Choice B), renal tubule damage (Choice C), and growth impairment (Choice D) can also occur due to lead poisoning, but they are not as severe or potentially irreversible as the damage to the central nervous system.

5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

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