Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Genetic mutations
• C. Housing conditions
• D. Age

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Housing conditions. Social determinants of health are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. Housing conditions directly impact health outcomes as they can affect exposure to toxins, safety, and overall well-being. Choice A, blood pressure, is a physiological measure and not a social determinant. Choice B, genetic mutations, relates to an individual's genetic makeup and is not influenced by social factors. Choice D, age, is a demographic factor and not a social determinant of health.

2. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?

• A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
• B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
• C. Intense thirst and hunger
• D. Painful hematoma on thigh

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.

3. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

5. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

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