Nursing Elites

1. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal mass and weakness. In neuroblastoma, the most common presenting signs are related to the mass effect of the tumor, leading to an abdominal mass and symptoms of weakness. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more indicative of other conditions like neurofibromatosis or brain tumors. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are more commonly seen in conditions such as brain tumors or increased intracranial pressure, but they are not specific to neuroblastoma.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

3. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

• A. Oil retention
• B. Soapsuds
• C. Saline
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

4. When preparing to apply dressing to a stage 2 pressure injury, which type of dressing should the nurse use?

• A. Hydrocolloid
• B. Gauze
• C. Transparent film
• D. Alginate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrocolloid. Hydrocolloid dressings are recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as they help maintain a moist wound environment, which supports the healing process. Gauze (choice B) is not ideal for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can stick to the wound bed and disrupt the healing process. Transparent film dressings (choice C) are more suitable for superficial wounds or as a secondary dressing. Alginate dressings (choice D) are typically used for wounds with heavy exudate, which is not typically seen in stage 2 pressure injuries.

5. A client is talking with an older adult who is contemplating retirement. The client states, 'I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you.
• B. You should consider how retirement will affect your financial situation.
• C. Retirement is a big change, take your time to decide.
• D. Have you thought about what you will do after you retire?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to discuss how the change in job status will affect the client. This helps the client consider the emotional and psychological impact of retirement. Choice B focuses solely on the financial aspect of retirement, which may not address the client's current concerns about enjoying their job. Choice C acknowledges the decision-making process but does not actively engage the client in exploring their feelings. Choice D shifts the focus to post-retirement plans without addressing the client's current hesitation about retiring.

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