Nursing Elites

1. An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The LPN knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is

• A. prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the optimal position for a client receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube because it reduces the risk of aspiration. In Fowler's position, the client is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle, which helps prevent the formula from flowing back into the esophagus and causing aspiration pneumonia. Choice A, prone position (lying face down), would not be suitable for administering tube feedings as it increases the risk of aspiration. Sims' position (lying on the left side with the right knee flexed) and supine position (lying flat on the back) are also not ideal for administering tube feedings as they do not provide the same level of protection against aspiration as Fowler's position does.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Measure the client's vital signs.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.

4. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.

5. When conducting an admission assessment, the LPN should ask the client about the use of complementary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?

• A. Complementary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment.
• B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects.
• C. Many complementary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices.
• D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complementary healing practices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When considering the use of complementary healing practices, it is important to acknowledge that many of these practices can be safely integrated with conventional treatments to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because complementary healing practices can complement traditional medical approaches rather than interfere with their efficacy. Choice B is incorrect as interactions between conventional medications and folk remedies may vary, but not all interactions lead to adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as conventional medical practices and complementary healing practices can coexist and each offer benefits in healthcare.

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