Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who tells the nurse, 'I am leaving the hospital this morning whether the doctor discharges me or not.' The nurse believes that this is not in the client’s best interest and prepares to administer a PRN sedative medication the client has not requested along with the scheduled morning medication. Which of the following types of tort is the nurse about to commit?

• A. Assault
• B. False imprisonment
• C. Negligence
• D. Breach of confidentiality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is about to commit false imprisonment by unlawfully restricting the client's freedom of movement. In this scenario, the nurse's actions of preparing to administer sedative medication against the client's will in an effort to prevent them from leaving the hospital constitute false imprisonment. Assault (choice A) involves the threat of bodily harm, which is not present here. Negligence (choice C) refers to a breach in the duty of care, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Breach of confidentiality (choice D) involves disclosing confidential information without consent, which is unrelated to the scenario described.

2. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, what should the nurse do?

• A. Assess the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Limit the amount of fluid intake.
• C. Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale.
• D. Have special times for inspection to not interrupt routine care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool like the Braden Scale. This tool helps in systematically evaluating the patient's risk of developing pressure ulcers. Assessing the skin every 4 hours (Choice A) may be too frequent or unnecessary unless there are specific concerns or orders. Limiting fluid intake (Choice B) is not directly related to skin assessment in an immobilized patient. Having special times for inspection to avoid interrupting routine care (Choice D) is not as crucial as using a standardized tool for consistent and comprehensive skin assessment.

3. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?

• A. Ankle-foot orthotic
• B. Continuous passive motion machine
• C. Abduction splint
• D. Sequential compression device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

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