Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 83 gtt/min
• B. 125 gtt/min
• C. 100 gtt/min
• D. 75 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

2. The nurse is assessing body alignment for a patient who is immobilized. Which patient position will the nurse use?

• A. Supine position
• B. Lateral position
• C. Lateral position with positioning supports
• D. Supine position with no pillow under the patient's head

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing body alignment for an immobilized patient, the nurse should use the lateral position. This position helps in assessing alignment and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers. The supine position (Choice A) may not provide an accurate assessment of body alignment in an immobilized patient. While a lateral position with positioning supports (Choice C) may be used for comfort, it is not specifically for assessing body alignment. Using the supine position without a pillow under the patient's head (Choice D) is not ideal for assessing body alignment in an immobilized patient as it may not accurately reflect the patient's overall alignment.

3. A nurse is discussing the care of a group of clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the newly licensed nurse identify as experiencing chronic pain?

• A. A client who has a broken femur and reports hip pain.
• B. A client who has incisional pain 72 hours following pacemaker insertion.
• C. A client who has food poisoning and reports abdominal cramping.
• D. A client who has episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chronic pain is typically defined as pain lasting longer than 3-6 months or persisting after the expected time for tissue healing. Episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago fits the criteria for chronic pain. Option A describes acute pain related to a recent fracture. Option B describes acute postoperative pain. Option C describes acute pain associated with an acute condition (food poisoning). Therefore, the correct identification of a client experiencing chronic pain is the one with episodic back pain from a past injury, as it has lasted beyond the normal healing time.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

5. During a home safety assessment for a client receiving supplemental oxygen, which observation should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

• A. The client uses non-acetone nail polish remover.
• B. The client uses an electric razor for shaving.
• C. The client cleans their oxygen equipment weekly.
• D. The client uses wool blankets.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using non-acetone nail polish remover is crucial for clients on supplemental oxygen as acetone is flammable and poses a safety risk. Acetone can react with oxygen, increasing the fire hazard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Electric razors can generate sparks, which are dangerous near oxygen due to the risk of ignition. While cleaning oxygen equipment is important, the type of nail polish remover used is more critical for immediate safety. Wool blankets can create static electricity, increasing the risk of fire around oxygen due to its flammability.

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