Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

2. A nurse at a clinic is collecting data about pain from a client who reports severe abdominal pain. The nurse asks the client if there have been any accompanying nausea and vomiting. Which of the following pain characteristics is the nurse attempting to determine?

• A. Presence of associated manifestations.
• B. Location of the pain
• C. Pain quality
• D. Aggravating and relieving factors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse is identifying associated manifestations like nausea and vomiting that may occur with the pain. The presence of associated manifestations helps in understanding the broader clinical picture and potential causes of the pain. Location refers to where the pain is felt, pain quality describes the nature of the pain, and aggravating and relieving factors relate to what makes the pain worse or better. In this scenario, the focus is on identifying additional symptoms that can provide important diagnostic clues.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

4. When replacing a client's surgical dressing, what should the nurse do?

• A. Don sterile gloves to remove the old dressing
• B. Wash hands thoroughly before removing the old dressing
• C. Use sterile gloves to remove the old dressing
• D. Apply a new dressing before removing the old one

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When replacing a client's surgical dressing, the nurse should use sterile gloves to remove the old dressing. Sterile technique is essential to prevent introducing infection to the wound. Choice A is incorrect because clean gloves are not sufficient; sterile gloves are necessary to maintain asepsis. Choice B, washing hands, is an important step before and after the procedure to maintain hand hygiene, but sterile gloves are required during the dressing change. Choice D is incorrect because a new dressing should only be applied after the old one has been removed to prevent contamination and ensure proper wound care.

5. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when the nurse requests the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
• B. Don't worry, it’s just for the surgery.
• C. You need to follow the instructions.
• D. The dentures need to be removed for a reason.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to provide a clear rationale for the request, as stated in option D. By explaining the purpose behind removing the dentures, the nurse helps the client understand the necessity, which can reduce agitation and promote cooperation. Option A demonstrates empathy by addressing the client's potential concern about being seen without dentures but lacks a direct explanation. Option B dismisses the client's feelings with a casual statement that may not address the underlying issue. Option C is authoritarian and lacks empathy, potentially escalating the client's agitation.

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