Nursing Elites

1. The client is advised to take dexamethasone (Decadron) with food or milk. What is the physiological basis for this advice?

• A. Inhibits pepsin production
• B. Stimulates hydrochloric acid production
• C. Delays stomach emptying time
• D. Reduces hydrochloric acid production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stimulates hydrochloric acid production. Dexamethasone can stimulate the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, which may lead to irritation of the stomach lining. Taking dexamethasone with food or milk helps to neutralize or buffer the acid, reducing the risk of stomach irritation. Choice A is incorrect because dexamethasone does not inhibit pepsin production. Choice C is incorrect as dexamethasone does not slow stomach emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as dexamethasone does not reduce hydrochloric acid production.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Morning stiffness
• B. Joint deformities
• C. Weight loss
• D. Fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fever in a client with rheumatoid arthritis can indicate an underlying infection or a more serious systemic involvement, such as vasculitis or inflammation of internal organs. These conditions can lead to serious complications and require immediate medical attention. Joint deformities and morning stiffness are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and may not be indicative of an acute issue. Weight loss can be seen in chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but is not as concerning as fever, which suggests an acute process requiring prompt evaluation and intervention.

3. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?

• A. Registered dietitian.
• B. Occupational therapist.
• C. Speech-language pathologist.
• D. Physical therapist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.

4. A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

5. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

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