Nursing Elites

1. Before starting kindergarten, the child should receive boosters of which primary immunizations to ensure ongoing protection?

• A. IPV, HepB, Td.
• B. DTaP, HepB, Td.
• C. MMR, DTaP, Hib.
• D. DTaP, IPV, MMR.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before starting kindergarten, the child should receive boosters of DTaP, IPV, and MMR. DTaP provides protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, IPV protects against polio, and MMR immunization covers measles, mumps, and rubella. These boosters are essential to maintain immunity and protect the child from these diseases as they enter school. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not include the recommended boosters for kindergarten entry and may leave the child susceptible to certain infections.

2. A 6-month-old infant is admitted with a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Providing small, frequent feedings
• B. Administering antibiotics
• C. Maintaining strict isolation
• D. Elevating the head of the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed is essential in the care of an infant with RSV as it helps improve breathing by reducing congestion and promoting drainage. This position also aids in maintaining patent airways and can enhance comfort for the infant. Providing small, frequent feedings (Choice A) is generally appropriate for infants but is not a specific intervention for RSV. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) is not indicated for RSV, as it is a viral infection and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Maintaining strict isolation (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infections, but it is not a direct care intervention for managing RSV symptoms.

3. The parents of a child who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes ask about exercise. What should the nurse explain about exercise in type 1 diabetes?

• A. Exercise will increase blood glucose levels
• B. Exercise should be restricted
• C. Extra snacks are needed before exercise
• D. Extra insulin is required during exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In type 1 diabetes, extra snacks are needed before exercise to prevent hypoglycemia. It is important to provide additional carbohydrates to maintain blood glucose levels during physical activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Exercise typically lowers blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes; however, proper management and adjustments in insulin and food intake are necessary to prevent hypoglycemia. Exercise should not be restricted in individuals with type 1 diabetes but should be planned in coordination with healthcare providers to ensure safety and optimal glucose control. While some individuals may need adjustments in insulin dosages during exercise, the general statement that extra insulin is required during exercise in type 1 diabetes is not accurate.

4. What is a key assessment the nurse should perform for a 5-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels
• B. Monitor respiratory rate
• C. Monitor urine output
• D. Monitor for signs of infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing kidney function in a child with acute glomerulonephritis. In this condition, there is inflammation in the glomeruli of the kidneys, affecting their ability to filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Monitoring urine output helps evaluate the kidneys' ability to excrete waste and maintain fluid balance. Options A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of acute glomerulonephritis. Monitoring blood glucose levels is more pertinent in conditions like diabetes, monitoring respiratory rate is important for respiratory conditions, and monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in cases of suspected infections but is not the primary assessment focus in acute glomerulonephritis.

5. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classification. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial burns, which are not full-thickness. Choice B describes characteristics of partial-thickness burns with intact blisters, not full-thickness burns. Choice C describes characteristics of partial-thickness burns with blistering and swelling, not full-thickness burns.

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